Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

2. The nurse prepares a discharge plan for an older adult client following cataract extraction. What instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects.
• B. Limit exposure to sunlight for the first 2 weeks.
• C. Irrigate the conjunctiva with saline before applying ointment.
• D. Read without direct lighting for 6 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide after cataract extraction is to advise the client to avoid straining, bending, or lifting heavy objects. These activities can increase intraocular pressure, which should be minimized post-surgery to promote healing and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because limiting sunlight exposure, irrigating the conjunctiva with saline, and reading without direct lighting are not primary instructions following cataract extraction.

3. A client with adrenal insufficiency is admitted to the ICU with acute adrenal crisis. The client's vital signs include heart rate 138 bpm and BP 80/60. What is the nurse's first intervention?

• A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
• B. Administer an IV fluid bolus.
• C. Administer PRN antipyretic.
• D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a client with adrenal crisis and hypotension is to administer an IV fluid bolus. In adrenal crisis, the body is deficient in cortisol, leading to hypotension. Fluid resuscitation helps stabilize the blood pressure. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering a PRN antipyretic (Choice C) is not indicated as the client's vital signs do not suggest fever. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) is not appropriate for addressing hypotension in adrenal crisis.

4. A client with tuberculosis is prescribed rifampin. What side effect should the nurse inform the client about?

• A. Report orange-colored urine as a sign of kidney dysfunction.
• B. Expect red-orange discoloration of urine as a harmless side effect.
• C. Monitor for signs of liver toxicity.
• D. Call the healthcare provider if vision changes occur.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Rifampin can cause red-orange discoloration of bodily fluids, including urine, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect, but clients should be informed beforehand to prevent alarm. Choice A is incorrect as orange-colored urine is not a sign of kidney dysfunction related to rifampin. Choice C is incorrect because rifampin is more commonly associated with liver toxicity rather than kidney dysfunction. Choice D is incorrect as vision changes are not a typical side effect of rifampin.

5. The nurse is taking the blood pressure measurement of a client with Parkinson's disease. Which information in the client's admission assessment is relevant to the nurse's plan for taking the blood pressure reading?

• A. Frequent syncope
• B. Muscle rigidity
• C. Gait instability
• D. Fine motor tremors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Frequent syncope.' Orthostatic hypotension, common in Parkinson's disease, often causes syncope (fainting) when blood pressure drops upon standing. This information is critical for planning safe blood pressure measurements, ensuring readings are taken in both lying and standing positions to assess for sudden drops in pressure. Muscle rigidity, tremors, or gait instability are important symptoms in Parkinson's disease but are not directly related to blood pressure assessment.

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