an unlicensed assistive personnel uap reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client what action should the charge nurse implement
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

2. A client has suspected compartment syndrome of the right lower leg. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a suspected case of compartment syndrome, the nurse's priority intervention is to loosen any restrictive dressings on the leg. This action helps to relieve pressure within the affected compartment, improve circulation, and prevent permanent damage. Elevating the leg may further increase pressure, preparing for emergency surgery is premature without proper assessment and diagnosis, and administering pain medication should come after addressing the primary issue of relieving pressure.

3. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to prevent infection?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to maintain a closed drainage system. This action is crucial in preventing infection as it helps prevent bacteria from entering the urinary tract. While cleansing the catheter insertion site and ensuring adequate hydration are important aspects of catheter care, the top priority is maintaining the integrity of the closed system to prevent infection. Emptying the collection bag regularly is also important but not as critical as ensuring a closed drainage system to minimize infection risk.

5. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.

Similar Questions

A male client admitted for schizophrenia is noted to be diaphoretic and pacing the hallway. What is the most important intervention?
A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?
A client with diabetes mellitus presents with a blood sugar level of 320 mg/dL. What is the nurse's initial action?
The nurse has given discharge instructions to parents of a child on phenytoin (Dilantin). Which of the following statements suggests that the teaching was effective?

Access More Features

HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses