HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?
- A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
- B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
- C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
- D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.
2. A client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO). What should the nurse prioritize in this client's care?
- A. Administer oral pain medication.
- B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of infection.
- D. Insert a nasogastric tube for decompression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is prescribed nothing by mouth (NPO), the nurse should prioritize monitoring the client's intake and output. This is crucial for assessing the client's fluid balance and ensuring that they are not becoming dehydrated or developing complications related to fluid status. Option A is incorrect because oral pain medication should not be administered to a client who is NPO. Option C is not the priority at this time, although monitoring for infection is important in the overall care of the client. Option D is not the initial priority unless there are specific indications for decompression, which would be determined by the healthcare provider.
3. A client on mechanical ventilation is experiencing high-pressure alarms. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Check the client's oxygen saturation.
- B. Assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction.
- C. Reposition the client to relieve pressure.
- D. Suction the client's airway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the client's endotracheal tube for obstruction. When a client on mechanical ventilation experiences high-pressure alarms, the first action should be to check for any potential obstructions in the airway, which can trigger the alarms. Checking the oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important but not the priority when dealing with high-pressure alarms. Repositioning the client (Choice C) may be necessary later but should not be the initial action. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) should only be done after assessing for and addressing any obstructions in the endotracheal tube.
4. A nurse finds a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation in cardiac arrest. What modification to cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer chest compressions at a faster rate.
- B. Position a firm wedge under the client’s pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree tilt.
- C. Position the client flat with legs elevated.
- D. Call for immediate assistance and prepare for a cesarean section.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a pregnant client at 33 weeks gestation, performing CPR requires tilting the pelvis and thorax at a 30-degree angle to relieve pressure on the vena cava, ensuring proper circulation during compressions. Administering chest compressions at a faster rate (Choice A) may not address the specific needs of a pregnant client in cardiac arrest. Positioning the client flat with legs elevated (Choice C) is not recommended as it can worsen vena cava compression. Calling for immediate assistance and preparing for a cesarean section (Choice D) should be considered only after initiating appropriate CPR modifications.
5. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
- B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
- C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
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