Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

2. A client with a 42-week gestation refuses induction. What is the most important action the nurse should take?

• A. Discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan.
• B. Explain the risks of induction after 42 weeks.
• C. Ask the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client.
• D. Discuss the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss alternative ways to support the client's birth plan. By doing so, the nurse can ensure that the client feels heard, respected, and supported in their decision-making process. While explaining the risks of induction after 42 weeks (Choice B) may be important, it is secondary to supporting the client's autonomy and preferences. Asking the healthcare provider to discuss the situation with the client (Choice C) may delay crucial communication and support that the nurse can provide. Discussing the characteristics of labor with oxytocin vs. natural labor (Choice D) is not the priority when the client has refused induction, as the focus should be on respecting their decision and exploring other options for support.

3. A client is admitted with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. What is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor during heparin therapy. It measures the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is used to assess the effectiveness of heparin as an anticoagulant. Keeping the aPTT within the therapeutic range is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Platelet count is important to assess for thrombocytopenia, a potential side effect of heparin, but it is not the primary laboratory value to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. When conducting diet teaching for a client on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Yogurt, milk, and pudding
• B. Tea, lentils, and potato soup
• C. Ice cream, broth, and fruit smoothies
• D. Orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or will turn liquid at room temperature. Yogurt, milk, and pudding are appropriate choices as they align with the consistency requirements of a full liquid diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tea, lentils, potato soup, ice cream, fruit smoothies, orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese are not typically part of a full liquid diet. These options either contain solid elements or are not in liquid form, which makes them unsuitable for a postoperative full liquid diet.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin, and their INR is elevated. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a dose of vitamin K to reverse the effects of warfarin.
• B. Monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or nosebleeds.
• C. Increase the client’s warfarin dosage to prevent clot formation.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated INR in clients taking warfarin increases the risk of bleeding, indicating the dose may be too high. The nurse's priority action is to notify the healthcare provider immediately and hold the next dose of warfarin to prevent bleeding complications. Administering vitamin K is not the first-line intervention for an elevated INR. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is important but not the priority over contacting the healthcare provider. Increasing the warfarin dosage can exacerbate the risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.

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