Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

2. A teenager presents to the emergency department with palpitations after vaping at a party. The client is anxious, fearful, and hyperventilating. Which acid-base imbalance does the nurse anticipate the client developing?

• A. Metabolic alkalosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Metabolic acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation from anxiety or fear causes an excessive loss of CO2, leading to respiratory alkalosis. This shift in pH results from the rapid, shallow breathing that reduces the level of carbon dioxide in the blood. Respiratory acidosis would occur in cases of poor ventilation or CO2 retention, while metabolic acidosis/alkalosis relates to disturbances in bicarbonate, not breathing patterns. Therefore, in this case, the client's hyperventilation due to anxiety would likely result in respiratory alkalosis, making option B the correct choice.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is reporting severe abdominal pain. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Assess the client's bowel sounds
• B. Administer prescribed pain medication
• C. Encourage the client to sit upright
• D. Provide clear fluids to the client

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute pancreatitis experiencing severe abdominal pain, the priority nursing intervention is to provide pain relief. Administering prescribed pain medication is essential to improve comfort and reduce pain, which can help stabilize the client's condition. Assessing bowel sounds (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the immediate priority over pain management. Encouraging the client to sit upright (Choice C) and providing clear fluids (Choice D) are not the primary interventions for addressing severe abdominal pain in acute pancreatitis.

4. An older male client, who is a retired chef, is hospitalized with a diabetic ulcer on his foot. His daughter tells the nurse that her father has become increasingly obsessed with the way his food is prepared in the hospital. The nurse's response should be based on what information?

• A. His daughter's observations suggest the client is depressed
• B. His compulsiveness about food may indicate new cognitive decline
• C. Obsessiveness with food is common in diabetic clients
• D. If the client was compulsive about food when he was younger, the aging process can magnify this

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Age can magnify pre-existing compulsive tendencies. If the client was detail-oriented about food earlier in life, this behavior may intensify with aging. It's important to acknowledge and address the client's concerns respectfully. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the daughter's observations do not necessarily point to depression, the compulsiveness about food does not indicate new cognitive decline without further assessment, and obsessiveness with food is not specifically common in diabetic clients.

5. A client with anemia is prescribed iron supplements. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Take iron supplements with meals to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Take iron supplements with milk to improve absorption.
• C. Expect black, tarry stools as a side effect of iron supplements.
• D. Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Take iron supplements with vitamin C to improve absorption. Vitamin C enhances iron uptake, making it more bioavailable for the body. It is essential to avoid taking iron supplements with milk (choice B) as calcium-rich foods can hinder iron absorption. Taking iron supplements with meals (choice A) can help reduce stomach upset, but the optimal way to enhance absorption is with vitamin C. Black, tarry stools (choice C) are not a typical side effect of iron supplements and should be reported to the healthcare provider.

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