HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with increasing shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Reposition the client to improve breathing.
- C. Perform chest physiotherapy.
- D. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. Oxygen therapy is the priority intervention for a client with COPD experiencing increasing shortness of breath. It helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Choice B is not the priority as oxygenation needs to be addressed first. Choice C, chest physiotherapy, may be beneficial but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice D, encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe, is not the priority intervention when oxygenation is compromised.
2. A client in labor who received epidural anesthesia experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
- B. Administer an intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Prepare the client for an emergency cesarean section.
- D. Place the client in a lateral position.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client experiencing a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia, the first action the nurse should take is to place the client in a lateral position. This position helps improve venous return and cardiac output by relieving aortocaval compression. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula may be necessary if the client shows signs of respiratory distress, but it is not the first priority in this situation. Administering an intravenous fluid bolus can help stabilize blood pressure, but repositioning the client takes precedence. Preparing the client for an emergency cesarean section is not indicated solely based on a sudden drop in blood pressure after epidural anesthesia; this step would be considered if other complications arise.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus reports tingling in their feet. What is the nurse's best intervention?
- A. Advise the client to avoid wearing tight shoes.
- B. Refer the client to a podiatrist for foot care.
- C. Teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care.
- D. Administer insulin as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing tingling in their feet is to teach the client about blood sugar control and foot care. This is essential because tingling in the feet can be a sign of neuropathy, a common complication of diabetes. Educating the client on maintaining proper blood sugar levels and foot care practices can help manage neuropathy symptoms and prevent complications like ulcers or infections. Advising the client to avoid tight shoes (Choice A) may help with comfort but does not address the underlying issue. Referring the client to a podiatrist (Choice B) is important for foot care but does not directly address blood sugar control. Administering insulin (Choice D) is not the priority for managing tingling in the feet related to neuropathy.
4. The nurse is preparing a client who had a BKA amputation for discharge to home. Which recommendations should the nurse provide this client?
- A. All of the above
- B. Inspect the skin for redness
- C. Use a residual limb shrinker
- D. Wash the stump with soap and water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper care of the residual limb is essential in preventing complications like infection or poor healing. By choosing 'All of the above,' the nurse ensures that the client receives comprehensive care. Inspecting the skin for redness is crucial as it can help in early detection of infections. Using a residual limb shrinker helps reduce swelling and maintain proper shaping of the limb. Washing the stump with soap and water on a daily basis is important for hygiene and preventing infections. Therefore, all the recommendations (choices A, B, and C) are essential for the client's care, making choice A the correct answer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not encompass all the necessary recommendations for the client's care.
5. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?
- A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
- B. Missed a dose of insulin
- C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
- D. Overexerted during exercise
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.
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