HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?
- A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
- B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
- C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
- D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.
2. What is the first action the nurse should take when treating a 6-year-old child who stepped on a rusty nail?
- A. Cleanse the foot with soap and water
- B. Instruct the parent about tetanus boosters
- C. Apply a sterile dressing and refer for a tetanus booster
- D. Elevate the foot and wrap in a compression bandage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct first action when a 6-year-old child steps on a rusty nail is to instruct the parent about tetanus boosters. This is important because stepping on a rusty nail increases the risk of tetanus infection. Choice A is incorrect as cleansing the foot comes after addressing the tetanus risk. Choice C is not the first action and should be done after addressing the immediate risk of tetanus. Choice D is not necessary as the priority is to prevent tetanus infection.
3. A client presses the call bell and requests pain medication for a severe headache. To assess the quality of the client's pain, which approach should the nurse use?
- A. Use the Wong-Baker Faces pain rating scale
- B. Assess vital signs to gauge pain severity
- C. Ask the client to describe the pain
- D. Offer a 1-10 pain scale
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Asking the client to describe the pain is the most appropriate approach to assess the quality of pain. It provides valuable qualitative information that aids in understanding the nature, cause, and potential management strategies for the headache. While pain rating scales like the Wong-Baker Faces scale and using vital signs can help quantify pain severity, they do not offer specific descriptive details that can give insights into the type and characteristics of the pain experienced by the client.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed a low-sodium diet. What is the nurse's priority teaching?
- A. Choose fresh fruits and vegetables.
- B. Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day.
- C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.
- D. Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' For a client with chronic kidney disease, limiting sodium intake is crucial because it helps prevent fluid retention and reduces the workload on the kidneys. Choice A, 'Choose fresh fruits and vegetables,' is generally a healthy dietary recommendation but not the priority when focusing on a low-sodium diet. Choice B, 'Restrict fluid intake to 1500 mL per day,' is important but secondary to limiting sodium intake. Choice D, 'Increase potassium intake to prevent hypokalemia,' is not the priority teaching for a client with chronic kidney disease on a low-sodium diet.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?
- A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
- C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
- D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.
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