Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

• A. I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon.
• B. I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%.
• C. 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
• D. 10 U of fast-acting insulin.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the initial treatment should involve administering 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. This helps rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels. Choices A and D are incorrect as administering glucagon or fast-acting insulin is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious client. Choice B, an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%, is a more invasive and aggressive intervention that is not typically indicated for a conscious client with hypoglycemia.

2. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
• C. Give the client fluids to drink.
• D. Notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with myxedema coma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids
• B. Provide a warming blanket
• C. Administer levothyroxine intravenously
• D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In myxedema coma, the priority intervention is to administer levothyroxine intravenously. Myxedema coma is a severe form of hypothyroidism, and intravenous levothyroxine is crucial to rapidly replace deficient thyroid hormones. Administering intravenous fluids (choice A) may be necessary, but levothyroxine takes precedence. Providing a warming blanket (choice B) can help maintain the client's body temperature, but it does not address the underlying thyroid hormone deficiency. Placing the client in Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not indicated and can potentially worsen the client's condition.

4. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

5. A male client with a tentative diagnosis of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) has a history of type 2 diabetes that is being controlled with an oral diabetic agent, tolazamide (Tolinase). Which of the following is the most important laboratory test for confirming this disorder?

• A. Serum potassium level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• D. Serum osmolarity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Serum osmolarity is the most important laboratory test for confirming hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). HHNS is characterized by severe hyperglycemia and dehydration without ketoacidosis. Elevated serum osmolarity indicates increased solute concentration in the blood, which is a hallmark of HHNS. Serum potassium level (Choice A) is important in conditions like diabetic ketoacidosis rather than HHNS. Serum sodium level (Choice B) may be affected in HHNS but is not the primary test for confirming the disorder. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values (Choice C) are more useful in assessing acid-base status, which is not the primary concern in HHNS.

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