nurse perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion light headedness and aberrant behavior the client is st
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1. Nurse Perry is caring for a female client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is still conscious. The nurse should first administer:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the initial treatment should involve administering 15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. This helps rapidly raise the client's blood glucose levels. Choices A and D are incorrect as administering glucagon or fast-acting insulin is not the first-line treatment for hypoglycemia in a conscious client. Choice B, an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%, is a more invasive and aggressive intervention that is not typically indicated for a conscious client with hypoglycemia.

2. The healthcare provider is providing dietary instructions to a client with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following foods should the client avoid?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client with hyperthyroidism should avoid foods high in iodine, as it can exacerbate the condition by increasing thyroid hormone production. Seafood, particularly ocean fish, is rich in iodine, making it a food to avoid. Spinach, bananas, and oatmeal do not contain high levels of iodine and are generally safe for individuals with hyperthyroidism.

3. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek's sign indicates:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching due to increased neuromuscular irritability from low calcium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is characterized by low sodium levels, but it does not present with Chvostek's sign. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is low potassium levels, and hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is high magnesium levels, neither of which are associated with Chvostek's sign.

4. In a 29-year-old female client who is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome, nurse Lyzette would expect a decline in:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum glucose level. In Cushing's syndrome, there is excess cortisol production which can lead to hyperglycemia. Successful treatment of Cushing's syndrome aims to normalize cortisol levels, resulting in a decline in serum glucose levels. Choice B, hair loss, is not specifically associated with Cushing's syndrome or its treatment. Choice C, bone mineralization, is often compromised in Cushing's syndrome due to the effects of excess cortisol on bones; however, successful treatment would aim to improve bone health rather than decline it. Choice D, menstrual flow, is not directly linked to Cushing's syndrome or its treatment, so a decline in menstrual flow would not be an expected outcome of successful treatment.

5. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

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