HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 6
1. A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager’s role in this process?
- A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
- B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
- C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
- D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.
2. Which of the following is a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS)?
- A. Muscle atrophy.
- B. Severe pain.
- C. Vision problems.
- D. Hearing loss.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vision problems are a characteristic symptom of multiple sclerosis (MS) due to demyelination of the optic nerve. This can lead to issues such as optic neuritis, blurred vision, double vision, or even total vision loss. Muscle atrophy (Choice A) is not a primary symptom of MS but can occur as a secondary effect of decreased mobility. Severe pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of MS, though some individuals may experience pain related to muscle spasms or other factors. Hearing loss (Choice D) is not commonly associated with MS unless there is an unrelated concurrent condition affecting the auditory system.
3. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving education on managing fluid intake. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can drink as much water as I want.
- B. I should increase my intake of high-sodium foods.
- C. I can skip a dialysis session if I feel tired.
- D. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. Clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions, as this can lead to serious complications. Dialysis is crucial for managing fluid and electrolyte balance in these clients. Choice A is incorrect because clients with renal failure often have fluid restrictions. Choice B is incorrect as high-sodium foods can worsen fluid retention in clients with renal failure. Choice D is incorrect because dietary restrictions are important in managing chronic renal failure, and eating whatever one wants can lead to further complications.
4. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?
- A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
- B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
- C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
- D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.
5. Upon admission to the prenatal clinic, a 23-year-old woman informs the nurse that her last menstrual period began on February 15, and that previously her periods were regular. Her pregnancy test is positive. What is this client's expected date of delivery (EDD)?
- A. November 22.
- B. November 8.
- C. December 22.
- D. October 22.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the expected date of delivery (EDD) using Nägele's rule, add 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period (LMP) which is February 15, resulting in February 22. Then, subtract 3 months from February 22, which gives November 22 as the estimated due date.