Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is working to improve patient satisfaction on the unit. Which of the following best describes the nurse manager’s role in this process?

• A. The nurse manager should set clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitor progress, and provide feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care.
• B. The nurse manager should gather data on patient satisfaction, identify areas for improvement, and implement strategies to enhance the patient experience.
• C. The nurse manager should develop a patient satisfaction improvement plan, set measurable goals, and track progress over time to ensure continuous improvement.
• D. The nurse manager should involve patients and families in the patient satisfaction improvement process, gather feedback, and use it to make improvements to care delivery.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The nurse manager's role in improving patient satisfaction involves setting clear expectations for patient satisfaction, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff members to continuously improve patient care. Choice B is incorrect as gathering data and implementing strategies are typically part of quality improvement initiatives but do not solely define the nurse manager's role. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse manager is responsible for setting expectations and monitoring progress rather than developing the improvement plan. Choice D is incorrect as involving patients and families and gathering feedback are important aspects, but the question specifically asks about the nurse manager's role, which primarily involves setting expectations, monitoring progress, and providing feedback to staff.

2. A female client with a history of pheochromocytoma is admitted to the hospital in an acute hypertensive crisis. To reverse the hypertensive crisis caused by pheochromocytoma, nurse Lyka expects to administer:

• A. Phentolamine (Regitine)
• B. Methyldopa (Aldomet)
• C. Mannitol (Osmitrol)
• D. Felodipine (Plendil)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a hypertensive crisis due to pheochromocytoma, the appropriate medication to administer is Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker. Phentolamine acts quickly to block the effects of excess catecholamines that are released in pheochromocytoma, helping to rapidly lower blood pressure. Methyldopa (Aldomet) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used for chronic hypertension, not for acute crises like pheochromocytoma. Mannitol (Osmitrol) is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure and treat cerebral edema, not indicated for hypertensive crises. Felodipine (Plendil) is a calcium channel blocker used for chronic management of hypertension, not for acute hypertensive crises like those seen in pheochromocytoma.

3. The client has undergone a thyroidectomy. Which of the following symptoms would indicate a potential complication?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperreflexia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypocalcemia is a potential complication of thyroidectomy as it may occur if the parathyroid glands, responsible for calcium regulation, are inadvertently removed or damaged during the procedure. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with thyroidectomy complications. Tachycardia (fast heart rate) is more commonly seen in hyperthyroidism. Hyperreflexia (exaggerated reflex responses) is not a typical complication of thyroidectomy.

4. Nurse Noemi administers glucagon to her diabetic client and then monitors the client for adverse drug reactions and interactions. Which type of drug interacts adversely with glucagon?

• A. Oral anticoagulants
• B. Anabolic steroids
• C. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• D. Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oral anticoagulants. Glucagon may enhance the anticoagulant effect of oral anticoagulants, increasing the risk of bleeding. This interaction can be dangerous for the patient, leading to serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because anabolic steroids, beta-adrenergic blockers, and thiazide diuretics do not typically interact adversely with glucagon. It is crucial for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication orders for a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Levothyroxine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Calcium supplements
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amiodarone. Amiodarone can affect thyroid function and potentially worsen hypothyroidism, so its use should be carefully considered or questioned in clients with this condition. Levothyroxine (Choice A) is the mainstay therapy for hypothyroidism and should not be questioned in this scenario. Calcium supplements (Choice C) are not typically contraindicated in clients with hypothyroidism and may be needed if there is a deficiency. Aspirin (Choice D) is not directly related to thyroid function and is not a medication that would typically be questioned in a client with hypothyroidism.

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