Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Ruth is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

• A. Tetany
• B. Hemorrhage
• C. Thyroid storm
• D. Laryngeal nerve damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tetany.' Tetany is characterized by muscle twitching, tingling, and numbness, which are indicative of hypocalcemia. After a thyroidectomy, accidental removal or damage to the parathyroid glands can lead to decreased calcium levels, resulting in tetany. Choice B, 'Hemorrhage,' is incorrect as it typically presents with symptoms such as sudden swelling, increased pain, or drop in blood pressure. Choice C, 'Thyroid storm,' is incorrect as it involves a sudden exacerbation of hyperthyroidism, leading to symptoms like fever, tachycardia, and confusion. Choice D, 'Laryngeal nerve damage,' is incorrect as it would manifest with voice changes, difficulty swallowing, or respiratory distress, not the symptoms described in the scenario.

2. Which of the following describes an effective method of communication?

• A. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement.
• B. A unit manager meets with a new nurse to explain departmental policies.
• C. A unit manager meets with staff after several safety events to introduce new policies aimed at preventing further safety events.
• D. A unit manager describes safety events that have occurred on the unit to another nurse manager and discusses ideas for policy improvement with the other manager.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because it describes an effective method of communication where a unit manager meets with a new nurse to discuss what is going well and areas for improvement. This approach fosters open dialogue, provides constructive feedback, and promotes professional growth. Choice B is incorrect as it only involves the explanation of departmental policies without engaging in a two-way communication process. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on policy introduction after safety events rather than individual feedback. Choice D is incorrect as it involves discussing safety events with another manager and policy improvement, but it does not directly address individual performance feedback, which is essential for effective communication and professional development.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory findings is most consistent with this condition?

• A. Increased serum sodium
• B. Decreased urine specific gravity
• C. Decreased serum osmolality
• D. Increased serum potassium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum osmolality. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) is characterized by the excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), leading to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. The dilution of sodium results in decreased serum osmolality. Option A is incorrect because SIADH causes hyponatremia, resulting in decreased serum sodium levels. Option B is incorrect because SIADH leads to concentrated urine with increased urine specific gravity. Option D is incorrect as SIADH does not typically affect serum potassium levels.

4. Nurse Troy is aware that the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is:

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Excessive fluid volume
• C. Urinary retention
• D. Hypothermia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with Addison's disease is 'Risk for infection.' Addison's disease is characterized by corticosteroid deficiency, which leads to immune suppression, making these clients more susceptible to infections. This diagnosis reflects the increased vulnerability of clients with Addison's disease to infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Addison's disease does not typically present with excessive fluid volume, urinary retention, or hypothermia as primary concerns.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes was previously well controlled with glyburide (Diabeta), 5 mg PO daily, but recently the fasting blood glucose has been running 180-200 mg/dl. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone (Deltasone)
• B. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• C. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can increase blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and decreasing glucose uptake by cells. This medication can lead to hyperglycemia in patients, especially those with diabetes mellitus. Atenolol (Tenormin) is a beta-blocker and is not known to significantly affect blood glucose levels. Phenelzine (Nardil) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor used to treat depression and anxiety disorders; it does not typically impact blood glucose levels. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is a xanthine oxidase inhibitor used to manage gout and does not interfere with blood glucose regulation.

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