Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.

2. Which of the following best describes the role of a nurse manager in managing conflict on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for mediating conflicts between staff members and ensuring that they are resolved in a fair and equitable manner.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for facilitating communication between staff members and ensuring that conflicts are addressed in a timely manner.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing training and support to staff members to help them develop the skills needed to manage conflict effectively.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager's role in managing conflict involves identifying the sources of conflict and working with staff members to resolve them in a constructive manner. This includes addressing conflicts at their root cause and guiding staff towards effective resolution. Choice B is incorrect as the nurse manager typically does not act as a mediator but rather empowers staff to resolve conflicts themselves. Choice C is incorrect as while facilitating communication is important, it is not the sole responsibility of the nurse manager. Choice D is incorrect as providing training and support for conflict management is part of the role, but the primary responsibility lies in addressing the sources of conflict directly.

3. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed metformin. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

• A. Lactic acidosis
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, lactic acidosis. Metformin, a common medication for type 2 diabetes mellitus, can lead to lactic acidosis, particularly in individuals with renal impairment or predisposing factors. Monitoring for signs of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, dizziness, and slow or uneven heart rate, is crucial to prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as metformin does not typically cause hypokalemia, hyperglycemia, or weight gain as its primary side effects.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical findings would the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Weight loss
• C. Cold intolerance
• D. Diaphoresis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cold intolerance is a classic symptom of hypothyroidism. In hypothyroidism, the body's metabolic rate is decreased, leading to a reduced ability to regulate body temperature. As a result, individuals with hypothyroidism often feel cold, especially in their extremities. Tachycardia (A) is more commonly associated with hyperthyroidism due to the increased metabolic rate. Weight loss (B) is also a typical finding in hyperthyroidism, as the body burns calories at a faster rate. Diaphoresis (D), excessive sweating, is not a typical symptom of hypothyroidism.

5. A healthcare provider caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiographic change would the healthcare provider expect to note based on the magnesium level?

• A. Prominent U waves
• B. Prolonged PR interval
• C. Depressed ST segment
• D. Widened QRS complexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A magnesium level of 1.0 mg/dL can cause a depressed ST segment on the ECG. Magnesium deficiency commonly leads to ST segment depression on an electrocardiogram. Prominent U waves are associated with hypokalemia, prolonged PR interval is seen in conditions like first-degree heart block, and widened QRS complexes are typically related to conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.

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