HESI RN
HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5
1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?
- A. Administer intravenous insulin
- B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
- C. Monitor serum potassium levels
- D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.
2. An agitated, confused female client arrives in the emergency department. Her history includes type 1 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:
- A. 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate.
- B. 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
- C. 18 to 20 g of a simple carbohydrate.
- D. 25 to 30 g of a simple carbohydrate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate. In the treatment of hypoglycemia, it is important to administer a specific amount of simple carbohydrates to raise blood glucose levels effectively without causing hyperglycemia. 10 to 15 g of simple carbohydrates, such as glucose tablets, fruit juice, or regular soft drinks, is recommended to rapidly increase blood sugar levels in clients experiencing hypoglycemia. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they either provide too little or too much glucose, which may not effectively treat the hypoglycemic episode or may lead to rebound hyperglycemia.
3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?
- A. Polyuria and polydipsia
- B. Hypertension and bradycardia
- C. Weight gain and edema
- D. Oliguria and thirst
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.
4. As a nurse manager rounds on the unit, he speaks with staff, patients, and family members. Later in the day, he is in a meeting with administration. During the conversations, he considers how these interactions impact the care provided to patients on the unit. Which of the following interpersonal activities best describes this manager's actions?
- A. Networking
- B. Employee development
- C. Coaching
- D. Monitoring
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Networking.' Networking involves interacting with others to exchange information and develop professional or social contacts. In this scenario, the nurse manager engages in networking by speaking with staff, patients, family members, and administration to understand their perspectives and build relationships. This activity helps the manager gather insights that can positively impact patient care. Choice B, 'Employee development,' focuses on activities aimed at improving staff skills and performance, which is not the primary focus of the manager's actions described. Choice C, 'Coaching,' involves providing guidance and support to individuals to help them achieve specific goals, which is not explicitly depicted in the scenario. Choice D, 'Monitoring,' typically involves overseeing or supervising activities to ensure compliance with standards or objectives, which does not fully capture the manager's proactive engagement in building relationships and gathering information through interactions.
5. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek's sign indicates:
- A. Hypocalcemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypokalemia
- D. Hypermagnesemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching due to increased neuromuscular irritability from low calcium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is characterized by low sodium levels, but it does not present with Chvostek's sign. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is low potassium levels, and hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is high magnesium levels, neither of which are associated with Chvostek's sign.
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