Nursing Elites

1. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following interventions should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer intravenous insulin
• B. Start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline
• C. Monitor serum potassium levels
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to start an intravenous line and infuse normal saline. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the priority intervention is fluid resuscitation with normal saline to restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Administering insulin without first addressing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances can lead to further complications. Monitoring serum potassium levels and obtaining an arterial blood gas (ABG) are important aspects of DKA management but come after initial fluid resuscitation.

2. The client with DM who is taking insulin develops a fever and becomes confused. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Check the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Administer a fever-reducing medication.
• C. Give the client fluids to drink.
• D. Notify the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with diabetes mellitus (DM) taking insulin, the development of fever and confusion may indicate hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Checking the blood glucose level is the priority action in this situation. This will help determine if the symptoms are related to high blood sugar levels, guiding further interventions. Administering a fever-reducing medication (choice B) addresses only the symptom of fever and does not address the underlying cause. Providing fluids to drink (choice C) is important but should come after addressing the potential hyperglycemia or diabetic ketoacidosis. Notifying the health care provider (choice D) can be important, but immediate action to evaluate and manage the client's condition should precede contacting the provider.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism. Which of the following clinical manifestations is consistent with this condition?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In hyperparathyroidism, there is an overproduction of parathyroid hormone, leading to increased calcium levels in the blood (hypercalcemia). This occurs as the parathyroid hormone stimulates the release of calcium from the bones and enhances calcium absorption in the intestines and kidneys. Therefore, the correct answer is hypercalcemia (Choice B). Hypocalcemia (Choice A) is not consistent with hyperparathyroidism, as this condition is characterized by high calcium levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and hyperphosphatemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with hyperparathyroidism and are not primary manifestations of this condition.

4. The client with type 2 DM is learning to manage blood glucose levels. When should the client monitor blood glucose?

• A. Only when feeling unwell.
• B. Only before meals.
• C. Before meals and at bedtime.
• D. Only after meals.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor blood glucose before meals and at bedtime. This timing allows the client to assess fasting levels and make informed decisions about mealtime insulin or medication doses. Monitoring only when feeling unwell (choice A) is not sufficient for proper glucose management as it may miss important trends. Monitoring only before meals (choice B) is helpful but does not provide a complete picture of the client's glucose control throughout the day. Monitoring only after meals (choice D) is less beneficial than monitoring before meals as it does not capture fasting levels. Therefore, monitoring before meals and at bedtime (choice C) is the most comprehensive approach to maintain good glucose control and prevent complications.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to care for a client with a potassium deficit. The healthcare professional reviews the client's record and determines that the client was at risk for developing the potassium deficit because the client:

• A. Has renal failure.
• B. Requires nasogastric suction.
• C. Has a history of Addison's disease.
• D. Is taking a potassium-sparing diuretic.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nasogastric suction can lead to significant potassium loss due to the continuous drainage of gastric contents, increasing the risk of a potassium deficit. Choices A, C, and D do not directly result in the significant loss of potassium. Renal failure may lead to potassium retention rather than a deficit. Addison's disease is associated with adrenal insufficiency, not potassium depletion. Potassium-sparing diuretics, as the name suggests, typically help retain potassium rather than cause a deficit.

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