Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy, a female client develops hypothyroidism. Dr. Smith prescribes levothyroxine (Levothroid), 25 mcg P.O. daily. For which condition is levothyroxine the preferred agent?

• A. Primary hypothyroidism
• B. Graves' disease
• C. Thyrotoxicosis
• D. Euthyroidism

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is the preferred agent for primary hypothyroidism because it provides the necessary replacement of thyroid hormone in patients with deficient thyroid function. Choice B, Graves' disease, is an autoimmune disorder that causes hyperthyroidism and is typically treated with antithyroid medications or radioactive iodine. Choice C, thyrotoxicosis, refers to the clinical state resulting from excessive thyroid hormone action and is not typically treated with levothyroxine. Choice D, euthyroidism, describes a normal thyroid function and would not require treatment with levothyroxine.

2. What is the mechanism of action of corticotropin (Acthar) when prescribed as replacement therapy for a male client who has undergone surgical removal of a pituitary tumor?

• A. It decreases cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) production and affects the metabolic rate of target organs.
• B. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to inhibit enzymatic actions.
• C. It interacts with plasma membrane receptors to produce enzymatic actions that affect protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism.
• D. It regulates the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corticotropin (ACTH) stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol and other hormones, affecting protein, fat, and carbohydrate metabolism. Choice A is incorrect because corticotropin does not decrease cAMP production; instead, it stimulates enzymatic actions. Choice B is incorrect because corticotropin does not inhibit enzymatic actions but rather produces enzymatic actions. Choice D is incorrect because corticotropin's mechanism of action does not involve regulating the threshold for water reabsorption in the kidneys.

3. During the physical examination, Nurse Noah expects to assess which sign in a female client with a serum calcium level of 7.2 mg/dl?

• A. Trousseau's sign
• B. Homans' sign
• C. Hegar's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Trousseau's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, characterized by carpal spasm when a blood pressure cuff is inflated above systolic pressure and maintained for a few minutes. This occurs due to increased neuromuscular irritability associated with low serum calcium levels. Homans' sign is used to assess for deep vein thrombosis and involves calf pain upon dorsiflexion of the foot. Hegar's sign is a softening of the lower uterine segment seen in pregnancy, while Goodell's sign is softening of the cervix also seen in pregnancy. Therefore, in this scenario, the correct assessment related to hypocalcemia would be Trousseau's sign.

4. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being discharged after receiving initial treatment. What should the nurse emphasize as a crucial instruction?

• A. Take insulin as prescribed, even if you are not eating.
• B. Avoid all forms of physical exercise to prevent hypoglycemia.
• C. Monitor blood glucose levels regularly and report any changes.
• D. Stop taking oral antidiabetic medication if your blood glucose levels are normal.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly is a critical aspect of managing type 2 diabetes mellitus. This allows the individual to track their blood sugar levels, understand the effectiveness of the treatment plan, and detect any fluctuations promptly. Option A is incorrect because insulin should be taken based on a prescribed schedule that correlates with meals to prevent hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. Option B is incorrect as physical exercise is beneficial for managing diabetes but should be done cautiously with adjustments in insulin or food intake. Option D is incorrect because discontinuing oral antidiabetic medications without healthcare provider guidance can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels.

5. A good relationship between a leader and a follower enables the follower to 'manage up.' Which of the following describes the best way for a follower to 'manage up'?

• A. Provide feedback to the unit manager when the manager asks for it.
• B. Assist your manager in capitalizing on his or her strengths and weaknesses.
• C. When a follower works with a manager with poor leadership skills, it is best to transfer to a different unit.
• D. Show respect and appreciation for the manager, even when speaking with coworkers.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Managing up involves building a positive relationship with one's manager by showing respect and appreciation. Choice A is not the best way to manage up as it only focuses on providing feedback when asked, rather than proactively showing respect. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests assisting the manager in capitalizing on their strengths and weaknesses, which is more about helping the manager rather than managing up. Choice C is not the best option as transferring to a different unit should not be the first step in managing up, as it does not address the relationship with the current manager. Therefore, the best way for a follower to manage up is by showing respect and appreciation for the manager, even in conversations with coworkers.

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