Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Wayne is aware that a positive Chvostek's sign indicates:

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypermagnesemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia. This sign is elicited by tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear, resulting in facial muscle twitching due to increased neuromuscular irritability from low calcium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is characterized by low sodium levels, but it does not present with Chvostek's sign. Hypokalemia (Choice C) is low potassium levels, and hypermagnesemia (Choice D) is high magnesium levels, neither of which are associated with Chvostek's sign.

2. What is the nurse manager’s role in improving the quality of care on the unit?

• A. The nurse manager is responsible for setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals.
• B. The nurse manager is responsible for monitoring patient outcomes and implementing changes to improve the quality of care on the unit.
• C. The nurse manager is responsible for ensuring that staff members follow established procedures and protocols to maintain the quality of care on the unit.
• D. The nurse manager is responsible for providing feedback and coaching to staff members to help them improve their performance and achieve the unit’s quality goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager plays a crucial role in improving the quality of care on the unit by setting goals and priorities for the unit and ensuring that staff members are working towards achieving those goals. This involves strategic planning, coordination, and leadership to guide the team in delivering high-quality patient care. Option B is incorrect as while monitoring patient outcomes is important, it is not the primary role of the nurse manager in improving care quality. Option C is incorrect because while ensuring staff adherence to procedures is important, it is a part of maintaining quality rather than actively improving it. Option D is incorrect as providing feedback and coaching, though essential, is not the primary role of the nurse manager in setting goals and priorities for quality improvement.

3. After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a male client experiences secondary failure. What would the nurse expect the physician to do?

• A. Initiate insulin therapy.
• B. Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
• C. Prescribe an additional oral antidiabetic agent.
• D. Restrict carbohydrate intake to less than 30% of the total caloric intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client experiences secondary failure to an oral antidiabetic agent like glipizide, the next step is often to initiate insulin therapy. This is because secondary failure indicates that the current oral antidiabetic medication is no longer effective in managing blood glucose levels, and insulin therapy may be required to adequately control blood sugar. Switching to a different oral antidiabetic agent may not be effective if there is already resistance to the current agent. Adding another oral antidiabetic agent may not address the underlying issue of secondary failure. Restricting carbohydrate intake is important for diabetes management but is not the primary intervention indicated in this scenario of secondary failure to glipizide.

4. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client newly diagnosed with DM for signs of complications. Which sign or symptom, if exhibited in the client, indicates that the client is at risk for chronic complications of diabetes if blood glucose levels are not adequately managed?

• A. Polyuria
• B. Diaphoresis
• C. Pedal edema
• D. Proteinuria

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proteinuria is the correct answer because it indicates kidney damage, which is a common complication of uncontrolled diabetes. Elevated blood glucose levels over time can damage the kidneys, leading to proteinuria. Polyuria (excessive urination) is a symptom of diabetes but does not specifically indicate a risk for chronic complications. Diaphoresis (excessive sweating) and pedal edema (swelling of the lower limbs) are not direct indicators of chronic complications related to uncontrolled diabetes.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected diabetes insipidus. Which of the following clinical manifestations would support this diagnosis?

• A. Polyuria and polydipsia
• B. Hypertension and bradycardia
• C. Weight gain and edema
• D. Oliguria and thirst

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) and polydipsia (excessive thirst) are classic clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus. In this condition, there is a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone, leading to the inability of the kidneys to concentrate urine effectively, resulting in increased urine output (polyuria) and consequent thirst (polydipsia). Hypertension and bradycardia (Choice B) are not typical findings in diabetes insipidus. Weight gain and edema (Choice C) are more indicative of conditions such as heart failure or nephrotic syndrome. Oliguria (decreased urine output) and thirst (Choice D) are contradictory symptoms to what is seen in diabetes insipidus.

Similar Questions