Nursing Elites

1. Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn from a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as indicative of:

• A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
• B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
• C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
• D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis.' In this case, the client's pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating compensation. The low PCO2 (30 mm Hg) suggests respiratory alkalosis, while the low HCO3 (19 mEq/L) is also consistent with a compensatory response. Therefore, the client has a primary respiratory alkalosis that is being compensated for by metabolic acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fit the pattern of the given blood gas values, which indicate respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation.

2. The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?

• A. I should not be surprised if I bruise more easily or if my gums bleed a little when brushing my teeth.
• B. It is important to take this medicine with food to enhance its effectiveness and minimize stomach upset.
• C. I should stop taking Plavix if it makes me feel weak and dizzy.
• D. The doctor prescribed this medicine to make my platelets less likely to stick together and help prevent clots from forming.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Weakness, dizziness, and headache are common adverse effects of Plavix and should be reported. It is essential to consult a physician before stopping Plavix as it plays a crucial role in preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is a common side effect of Plavix and does not indicate a need for further teaching. Choice B is incorrect because taking Plavix with or without food can affect its absorption and effectiveness. Choice D correctly explains the purpose of prescribing Plavix to prevent clot formation.

3. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.

4. After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?

• A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
• B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
• C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
• D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.

5. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

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