Nursing Elites

1. A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:

• A. The tube is patent
• B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
• C. Suction should be added to the system
• D. The client is retaining airway secretions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.

2. A healthcare professional assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for the development of bacterial cystitis?

• A. A 36-year-old female who has never been pregnant
• B. A 42-year-old male who is prescribed cyclophosphamide
• C. A 58-year-old female who is not taking estrogen replacement
• D. A 77-year-old male with mild congestive heart failure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Females are at higher risk of developing bacterial cystitis due to their shorter urethra compared to males. Postmenopausal women not on estrogen replacement therapy are particularly susceptible to cystitis because of changes in vaginal and urethral cells. This increases the risk of bacterial infection. The other options do not have the same level of risk as the postmenopausal woman not using hormone replacement therapy. A never-pregnant middle-aged woman does not have the same increased risk as a postmenopausal woman with hormonal changes.

3. When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, which laboratory values will this patient's nurse monitor closely?

• A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN), serum creatinine, and liver function tests
• B. Complete blood count and electrolytes
• C. Serum calcium and magnesium
• D. Serum glucose and lipids

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient is receiving high doses of a cephalosporin, such as cefazolin, the nurse should closely monitor laboratory values that indicate renal and hepatic function. This includes checking the Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels to assess kidney function. Additionally, monitoring liver function tests, such as AST, ALT, ALP, LDH, and bilirubin, is essential as cephalosporins can affect liver enzymes. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not specifically address the parameters that are most pertinent when administering high doses of cephalosporins.

4. A healthcare professional has a prescription to collect a 24-hour urine specimen from a client. Which of the following measures should the healthcare professional take during this procedure?

• A. Keeping the specimen chilled
• B. Saving the first urine specimen collected at the start time
• C. Discarding the last voided specimen at the end of the collection time
• D. Asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is asking the client to void, discarding the specimen, and noting the start time. During a 24-hour urine collection, the first voided urine is discarded to ensure the test starts with an empty bladder. The specimen should be kept chilled, not at room temperature, to prevent bacterial growth. The last voided specimen is not discarded because it contributes to the total volume collected, so choice C is incorrect. Discarding the specimen and noting the start time is essential for accurate results in a timed quantitative determination like a 24-hour urine collection.

5. A patient is taking a thiazide diuretic and reports anorexia and fatigue. The nurse suspects which electrolyte imbalance in this patient?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Anorexia and fatigue are common manifestations of hypokalemia. Hypercalcemia (choice A) and hypocalcemia (choice B) are not directly associated with thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia (choice C) is less likely than hypokalemia to be caused by thiazide diuretics.

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