HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:
- A. The tube is patent
- B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
- C. Suction should be added to the system
- D. The client is retaining airway secretions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.
2. A client is receiving continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following statements indicates the need for more teaching by the nurse?
- A. I should take all my medications every morning.
- B. The catheter should always remain in place.
- C. The catheter should be flushed daily with sterile saline.
- D. If I gain 2 pounds, I should skip dialysis that day.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Gaining weight is a sign that the client may be retaining fluid, indicating a need for dialysis to remove excess fluid. Skipping dialysis based on weight gain can lead to fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and other serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding peritoneal dialysis care: taking medications as prescribed is essential for overall health, ensuring the catheter remains in place is crucial to prevent infection, and flushing the catheter with sterile saline daily helps maintain its patency and reduce the risk of infections.
3. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?
- A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
- B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
- C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
- D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.
4. The client is being educated by the healthcare provider about risk factors associated with atherosclerosis and methods to reduce the risk. Which of the following is a risk factor that the client cannot modify?
- A. Diabetes
- B. Age
- C. Exercise level
- D. Dietary preferences
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for atherosclerosis because it is a natural part of the aging process. While lifestyle factors such as diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can be modified to reduce the risk of atherosclerosis, age cannot be altered. Therefore, age is the correct answer. Diabetes, exercise level, and dietary preferences can all be improved or managed through interventions and lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk of atherosclerosis.
5. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?
- A. Inadequate drug effects
- B. Increased risk of superinfection
- C. Minimal adverse effects
- D. Slowed onset of action
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.
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