HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. A client has a chest drainage system in place. The fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration. The nurse interprets this finding as an indication that:
- A. The tube is patent
- B. There is probably a kink in the tubing
- C. Suction should be added to the system
- D. The client is retaining airway secretions
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The tube is patent.' When the fluid in the water seal chamber rises and falls during inspiration and expiration, it indicates that the chest tube is patent, allowing for proper drainage. Choice B is incorrect because a kink in the tubing would obstruct the flow of fluid, leading to abnormal fluctuations in the water seal chamber. Choice C is incorrect as adding suction to the system is not indicated based on the described finding. Choice D is incorrect as the rising and falling of fluid in the water seal chamber is not indicative of the client retaining airway secretions.
2. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
- C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
- D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.
3. A young adult client, admitted to the Emergency Department following a motor vehicle collision, is transfused with 4 units of PRBCs (packed red blood cells). The client's pretransfusion hematocrit is 17%. Which hematocrit value should the nurse expect the client to have after all the PRBCs have been transfused?
- A. 0.19
- B. 0.09
- C. 0.39
- D. 0.29
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The expected increase in hematocrit after transfusion is approximately 3% per unit of PRBCs. Since the client received 4 units, the expected increase would be 4 x 3% = 12%. Therefore, adding this to the pretransfusion hematocrit of 17% would result in an expected post-transfusion hematocrit of 29%. Choice A (0.19) is incorrect as it doesn't consider the incremental increase per unit of PRBCs. Choices B (0.09) and C (0.39) are also incorrect as they do not align with the expected increase in hematocrit following the transfusion of 4 units of PRBCs.
4. A client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client’s dietary habits.
- B. Inquire about the client's use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
- C. Hold the client’s metformin (Glucophage).
- D. Contact the health care provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio can indicate various conditions such as dehydration, urinary obstruction, catabolism, or a high-protein diet. The initial action the nurse should take is to assess the client’s dietary habits to determine if the elevated ratio is related to diet. Inquiring about the use of NSAIDs is important as they can impact kidney function, but dietary causes should be ruled out first. Holding metformin or contacting the health care provider without assessing the dietary habits would be premature actions as they may not address the underlying cause of the elevated BUN/creatinine ratio.
5. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?
- A. Calcium acetate, one tablet by mouth
- B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate, 15 grams by mouth
- C. Epoetin Alfa, recombinant, 2,500 units subcutaneously
- D. Sevelamer, one tablet by mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access