Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?

• A. Temperature of 98.6°F (37°C).
• B. Weight gain of 2 lbs (0.9 kg) since the last treatment.
• C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
• D. Pulse rate of 72 bpm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Weight gain between dialysis sessions can indicate fluid overload, a common complication in clients with chronic renal failure. This can lead to complications such as hypertension, pulmonary edema, and heart failure. A normal temperature, blood pressure, and pulse rate are expected findings in this scenario and would not typically indicate a complication of hemodialysis treatment.

2. A nurse reviews the urinalysis of a client and notes the presence of glucose. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Document findings and continue to monitor the client.
• B. Contact the provider and recommend a 24-hour urine test.
• C. Review the client’s recent dietary selections.
• D. Perform a capillary artery glucose assessment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Glucose normally is not found in the urine. The normal renal threshold for glucose is about 220 mg/dL, which means that a person whose blood glucose is less than 220 mg/dL will not have glucose in the urine. A positive finding for glucose on urinalysis indicates high blood sugar. The most appropriate action would be to perform a capillary artery glucose assessment. The client needs further evaluation for this abnormal result; therefore, documenting and continuing to monitor is not appropriate. Requesting a 24-hour urine test or reviewing the client’s dietary selections will not assist the nurse to make a clinical decision related to this abnormality.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct

• A. dose.
• B. drug.
• C. frequency.
• D. route.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.

4. To help minimize the risk of postoperative respiratory complications after a hypophysectomy, during preoperative teaching, the nurse should instruct the client how to:

• A. Use incentive spirometry.
• B. Turn in bed.
• C. Take deep breaths.
• D. Cough.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client on how to take deep breaths. Deep breathing exercises are essential in preventing postoperative respiratory complications like atelectasis by promoting lung expansion. Using incentive spirometry is a more specific and advanced method of promoting deep breathing and lung expansion, making it a better choice than just turning in bed. While turning in bed may help with overall comfort and positioning, it is not as directly related to respiratory complications as deep breathing exercises. Coughing, although important for clearing secretions, is not as effective in preventing atelectasis as deep breathing exercises.

5. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

• A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
• B. I ate breakfast this morning.
• C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
• D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

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