Nursing Elites

1. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. HIV infection has been confirmed
• B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
• C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
• D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.

2. A marathon runner comes into the clinic and states, 'I have not urinated very much in the last few days.' The nurse notes a heart rate of 110 beats/min and a blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg. Which action by the nurse is the priority?

• A. Give the client a bottle of water immediately.
• B. Start an intravenous line for fluids.
• C. Teach the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily.
• D. Perform an electrocardiogram.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority action for the nurse is to give the client a bottle of water immediately. The athlete's symptoms of decreased urination, along with a heart rate of 110 beats/min and low blood pressure of 86/58 mm Hg, indicate mild dehydration. Rehydration should begin promptly to address the dehydration. Teaching the client to drink 2 to 3 liters of water daily is a good long-term strategy but not the immediate priority. Starting an intravenous line for fluids may be necessary if oral hydration is insufficient or if the degree of dehydration is severe. Performing an electrocardiogram is not indicated at this time as the priority is addressing the dehydration.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient who is newly admitted to the intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the patient’s admission electrolytes and notes a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Administer the digoxin and monitor the patient’s electrocardiogram closely.
• B. Hold the digoxin dose and notify the provider of the patient’s lab values.
• C. Request an order for an intravenous bolus of potassium.
• D. Request an order for oral potassium supplements.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient has a low serum potassium level, which can predispose the patient to digoxin toxicity. It is essential for the nurse to hold the digoxin dose and promptly notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal lab values. Option A is incorrect because administering digoxin without addressing the low potassium level can potentiate toxicity. Option C is inappropriate as potassium should not be given as an IV bolus, especially in the case of hypokalemia. Option D is incorrect because oral potassium supplements may not be sufficient for rapidly correcting severe hypokalemia in an acute care setting.

4. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to

• A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
• B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
• C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.

5. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the client on the operative side.
• B. Administer the prescribed opioid analgesic.
• C. Assess the pulse rate and blood pressure.
• D. Examine the color of the client’s urine.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

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