Nursing Elites

1. Which client should the nurse recognize as most likely to experience sleep apnea?

• A. Middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly.
• B. Obese older male client with a short, thick neck.
• C. Adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy.
• D. School-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Sleep apnea is characterized by pauses in breathing during sleep, often due to a collapsed or blocked airway. Obesity and having a short, thick neck are risk factors for sleep apnea because excess fat around the neck can obstruct the airway. Option A (middle-aged female who takes a diuretic nightly) does not present as a common risk factor for sleep apnea. Option C (adolescent female with a history of tonsillectomy) may have had tonsils removed, which could reduce the risk of sleep apnea. Option D (school-aged male with a history of hyperactivity disorder) is not directly associated with an increased risk of sleep apnea.

2. A client who has undergone pleural biopsy is being monitored by a nurse. Which finding indicates a potential complication for the client?

• A. Warm, dry skin
• B. Mild pain at the biopsy site
• C. Complaints of shortness of breath
• D. Capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Complaints of shortness of breath are a concerning finding post-pleural biopsy, as they may indicate a complication such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax. Shortness of breath can be a sign of respiratory distress that requires immediate attention. Warm, dry skin, mild pain at the biopsy site, and a capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds are not typically associated with immediate complications following a pleural biopsy. Warm, dry skin may be a normal finding, mild pain can be expected at the biopsy site, and a capillary refill time of less than 3 seconds is within normal limits.

3. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
• B. What medications are you taking?
• C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
• D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

4. When conducting discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis, which diet instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Eat a high-fiber diet and increase fluid intake.
• B. Have small frequent meals and sit up for at least two hours after meals.
• C. Eat a bland diet and avoid spicy foods.
• D. Eat a soft diet with increased intake of milk and milk products.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A high-fiber diet with increased fluid intake is the most appropriate diet instruction for a client diagnosed with diverticulosis. High-fiber foods help prevent constipation and promote bowel regularity, reducing the risk of complications such as diverticulitis. Adequate fluid intake is crucial to soften stool and aid in digestion. Choice B, having small frequent meals and sitting up after meals, may be beneficial for some gastrointestinal conditions but is not specific to diverticulosis. Choice C, eating a bland diet and avoiding spicy foods, is not necessary for diverticulosis management. Choice D, consuming a soft diet with increased milk and milk products, may worsen symptoms in diverticulosis due to the potential for increased gas production and bloating.

5. What is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs)?

• A. Escherichia coli infection
• B. Staphylococcus aureus infection
• C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection
• D. Klebsiella pneumoniae infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Escherichia coli is the most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs). It is responsible for the majority of UTIs, especially in women. E. coli is a normal inhabitant of the bowel and can enter the urinary tract through the urethra, leading to infection. Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Klebsiella pneumoniae are less common causes of UTIs compared to E. coli. Staphylococcus aureus typically causes skin and soft tissue infections, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is more commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections, and Klebsiella pneumoniae is known for causing pneumonia and other respiratory infections.

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