Nursing Elites

1. A patient with a diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome is likely to exhibit which of the following symptoms?

• A. Hyperpigmentation.
• B. Moon face.
• C. Hypotension.
• D. Hypertension.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moon face. Cushing's syndrome is characterized by excess cortisol levels, leading to the distinctive round and full face known as moon face. Hyperpigmentation (choice A) may occur due to increased ACTH levels, but it is not a hallmark symptom like moon face. Hypotension (choice C) is less common in Cushing's syndrome as cortisol typically leads to hypertension (choice D) due to its effects on blood pressure regulation.

2. The nurse is preparing to begin a medication regimen for a patient who will receive intravenous ampicillin and gentamicin. Which is an important nursing action?

• A. Administer each antibiotic to infuse over 15 to 20 minutes.
• B. Order serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin.
• C. Prepare the schedule so that the drugs are given at the same time.
• D. Set up separate tubing sets for each drug labeled with the drug name and date.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering intravenous aminoglycosides like gentamicin with penicillins such as ampicillin, it is crucial to avoid mixing them in the same container. Separate tubing sets labeled with the drug name and date should be used to prevent interactions between the medications. Administering each antibiotic over 15 to 20 minutes (Choice A) may not be appropriate for all medications and does not address the issue of compatibility. Ordering serum peak and trough levels of ampicillin (Choice B) is important for monitoring drug levels but does not directly address the administration process. Preparing a schedule to give drugs simultaneously (Choice C) may increase the risk of drug interactions and is not recommended when administering incompatible medications.

3. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

• A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
• D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.

4. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?

• A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
• B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
• C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
• D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.

5. A client is admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a urine output of 2000 mL/day. What is the major concern of the nurse regarding this client’s care?

• A. Edema and pain
• B. Electrolyte and fluid imbalance
• C. Cardiac and respiratory status
• D. Mental health status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The major concern for a client admitted with acute kidney injury (AKI) and a high urine output of 2000 mL/day is electrolyte and fluid imbalance. In AKI, there may be an inflammatory cause leading to proteins entering the glomerulus, resulting in fluid being held in the filtrate and causing polyuria. Electrolyte loss and fluid balance are critical to monitor and manage in AKI cases. Edema and pain are not typically associated with fluid loss. While changes in cardiac, respiratory, and mental health status can occur if electrolyte imbalance is not addressed, the primary focus should be on managing electrolyte and fluid balance to prevent further complications.

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