HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky, dizzy, and sweaty. The nurse checks the client's blood glucose level and it is 55 mg/dL. What is the nurse's next action?
- A. Give the client a glucagon injection
- B. Encourage the client to eat a high-protein snack
- C. Administer 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate
- D. Recheck the blood glucose level in 15 minutes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A blood glucose level of 55 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which should be treated with a fast-acting carbohydrate to quickly raise the blood sugar. Administering 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, is the appropriate initial intervention for hypoglycemia. Giving a glucagon injection is reserved for severe cases or when the client is unconscious. Encouraging the client to eat a high-protein snack is not appropriate for treating acute hypoglycemia, as it is a slower-acting form of glucose. Rechecking the blood glucose level is important but should occur after providing immediate treatment to raise the blood sugar level.
2. A client is experiencing angina at rest. Which statement indicates a good understanding of the care required?
- A. I will notify the nurse if my chest pain is not relieved in 30 minutes.
- B. I will use nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses.
- C. I will avoid physical activity until the pain subsides completely.
- D. I will take nitroglycerin 30 minutes before any physical activity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using nitroglycerin as needed, every 5 minutes, up to 3 doses, is the appropriate management for angina at rest. This helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. Choice A is incorrect because chest pain that persists at rest should be addressed immediately, not waiting for 30 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding physical activity is not a recommended approach during an angina episode. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be used during chest pain episodes, not as a preventive measure before physical activity.
3. The nurse is providing care for a client with severe peripheral arterial disease (PAD). The client reports a history of rest ischemia, with leg pain that occurs during the night. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Elevate the legs on pillows
- B. Encourage ambulation and leg exercises
- C. Provide a heating pad for warmth
- D. Offer cold packs when the pain occurs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Providing warmth can help dilate peripheral vessels and increase blood flow, relieving ischemic pain. In PAD, where there is already compromised blood flow, elevating the legs or applying cold therapy could worsen ischemic pain by further reducing blood flow to the extremities. Encouraging ambulation and leg exercises may be beneficial in other conditions but not suitable for clients with severe PAD experiencing rest ischemia.
4. A client with emphysema reports shortness of breath. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy.
- B. Assess the client’s respiratory rate and effort.
- C. Prepare the client for intubation.
- D. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath in a client with emphysema may indicate respiratory distress. Assessing the client’s respiratory rate and effort is the first priority to determine the severity of the distress and guide appropriate interventions. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice A) could be necessary, but assessing the client first is crucial to tailor the intervention. Intubation (Choice C) is an invasive procedure that is not the initial priority. Increasing oxygen flow rate (Choice D) should only be done after a thorough assessment to avoid potential harm.
5. An adult male is brought to the ER after a motorcycle accident with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which finding requires immediate attention?
- A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
- B. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally.
- C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
- D. Projectile vomiting.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears suggest a severe head injury. Projectile vomiting is a red flag symptom that may indicate increased intracranial pressure, which requires immediate attention to prevent further neurological deterioration. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) typically indicates peritonitis and is not directly related to the primary head injury. Diminished breath sounds bilaterally (choice B) suggest a pneumothorax or hemothorax, which are important but not as immediately life-threatening in this context. Rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) is concerning for rib fractures or pulmonary contusion, which are also important but do not take precedence over addressing the potential increased intracranial pressure.
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