Nursing Elites

1. To auscultate for a carotid bruit, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?

• A. Base of the neck on the right side
• B. Above the clavicle
• C. Over the sternum
• D. Over the trachea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To auscultate for a carotid bruit, the nurse should place the stethoscope at the base of the neck, near the carotid artery. A carotid bruit is an abnormal sound that indicates turbulent blood flow in the carotid artery, potentially due to arterial narrowing or atherosclerosis. Placing the stethoscope above the clavicle, over the sternum, or over the trachea would not provide the nurse with the optimal location to assess for carotid artery abnormalities.

2. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, that the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and that her eyes are puffy. What follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

• A. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?
• B. Have you had any changes in weight or energy levels?
• C. Do you have a family history of thyroid problems?
• D. Have you had recent cold intolerance or unusual fatigue?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Cold intolerance, fatigue, and other changes may indicate hypothyroidism, which could explain the hair and eyebrow loss, and puffy eyes. Choices A, B, and C are less relevant in this context and do not directly address the symptoms presented by the client.

3. A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

• A. Cover the areas with dry sterile dressings
• B. Assess for dyspnea or stridor
• C. Initiate intravenous therapy
• D. Administer pain medication

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving dialysis. The client reports muscle cramps and tingling in the hands. Which laboratory result should the nurse monitor to identify the cause of these symptoms?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Phosphate
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Muscle cramps and tingling in clients with chronic renal failure are often associated with hypocalcemia. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to identify imbalances and manage symptoms appropriately. Sodium, phosphate, and potassium levels are important in renal failure but are not directly related to the symptoms of muscle cramps and tingling reported by the client.

5. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease. The client's serum calcium level is 7.5 mg/dL. Which condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A serum calcium level of 7.5 mg/dL is indicative of hypocalcemia, a common complication in clients with chronic kidney disease due to impaired calcium absorption and metabolism. Hypercalcemia (Choice A) is the opposite of the condition presented in the question and is characterized by elevated serum calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice B) is an increased potassium level, not related to the client's serum calcium level. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is a decreased sodium level and is also not related to the client's serum calcium level.

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