HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with asthma. The primary purpose of the plan is to
- A. Prevent respiratory infections
- B. Prevent airway inflammation
- C. Maintain an open airway
- D. Avoid allergens that trigger attacks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Avoiding allergens that trigger asthma attacks is crucial in managing the condition and preventing exacerbations. While preventing respiratory infections and maintaining an open airway are important aspects of asthma management, the primary focus of the teaching plan is to help the client identify and avoid allergens that could trigger asthma attacks. This proactive approach can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms.
2. In the critical care unit, which client should receive the most care hours by a registered nurse (RN)?
- A. A client with a newly inserted Foley catheter and Alzheimer's disease
- B. A 55-year-old with chronic kidney disease
- C. An 82-year-old client with a newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints
- D. A 72-year-old with pneumonia and sepsis on antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client with a newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints should receive the most care hours as they have physical limitations due to the fracture and mental limitations due to being restrained. This client requires continuous monitoring, support, and frequent assessments to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D do not have the same level of physical and mental care needs as the client with the newly fractured femur and soft wrist restraints.
3. A male client with heart failure presents with shortness of breath, audible wheezing, and pink frothy sputum. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Consult with the charge nurse regarding morphine prescription.
- B. Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed.
- C. Withhold morphine until dyspnea resolves.
- D. Review the need for the prescription with the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the dose of morphine sulfate as prescribed. In heart failure, morphine helps reduce anxiety, preload, and afterload on the heart, improving oxygenation. The client's symptoms indicate acute decompensated heart failure, and morphine should be administered promptly to relieve distress. Consulting the charge nurse (Choice A) or withholding morphine (Choice C) would delay necessary treatment. Reviewing the prescription with the healthcare provider (Choice D) is not needed in this acute situation.
4. The nurse is caring for a preterm newborn with nasal flaring, grunting, and sternal retractions. After administering surfactant, which assessment is most important for the nurse to monitor?
- A. Bowel sounds
- B. Heart rate
- C. Arterial blood gases
- D. Apnea episodes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Surfactant therapy is used to improve lung function and gas exchange in premature infants with respiratory distress. Monitoring arterial blood gases is essential to assess the effectiveness of the treatment and ensure adequate oxygenation. While monitoring heart rate is important in neonatal care, assessing arterial blood gases will provide direct information regarding the infant's oxygenation status post-surfactant administration. Bowel sounds are not directly related to the respiratory distress symptoms described, and monitoring apnea episodes, although important in preterm infants, is not the most crucial assessment immediately following surfactant administration.
5. A female client experiences a sudden loss of consciousness and is taken to the emergency department. Initial assessment indicates her blood glucose level is critically low. Once stabilized, she reports being treated for anorexia nervosa. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client’s discharge plan?
- A. Encourage a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet.
- B. Encourage her to join a group focusing on self-esteem.
- C. Schedule an outpatient psychosocial assessment.
- D. Teach relaxation techniques to manage stress.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Joining a group that focuses on self-esteem is the most important intervention for the nurse to include in the client's discharge plan. This can help the client address underlying emotional issues related to her anorexia nervosa and improve her mental health. Choice A is incorrect because a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet may not address the psychological factors contributing to anorexia nervosa. Choice C is incorrect as scheduling an outpatient psychosocial assessment is important but not the most crucial intervention for discharge planning in this case. Choice D is also not the priority as teaching relaxation techniques, although beneficial, may not directly address the self-esteem and emotional issues that need to be tackled in this situation.
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