the nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with asthma the primary purpose of the plan is to
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client diagnosed with asthma. The primary purpose of the plan is to

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Avoiding allergens that trigger asthma attacks is crucial in managing the condition and preventing exacerbations. While preventing respiratory infections and maintaining an open airway are important aspects of asthma management, the primary focus of the teaching plan is to help the client identify and avoid allergens that could trigger asthma attacks. This proactive approach can significantly reduce the frequency and severity of asthma symptoms.

2. An older adult client with eye dryness reports itching and excessive tearing. Which medication group is most likely to have produced this client's symptoms?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Antihypertensives and anticholinergics. Anticholinergics are known to cause dryness of secretions, including dry eyes, which can lead to symptoms of eye dryness, itching, and excessive tearing as reported by the client. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not typically cause the symptoms described by the client. Antiinfectives, antidepressants, anticoagulants, antihistamines, antiretrovirals, and antivirals do not commonly lead to dry eyes, itching, and excessive tearing.

3. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

4. An adolescent with major depressive disorder has been taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) for the past 12 days. Which assessment finding requires immediate follow-up?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An adolescent expressing 'life without purpose' after taking duloxetine (Cymbalta) may be indicating suicidal ideation, which requires immediate attention. The initial period of antidepressant treatment can increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially in younger populations. Increased appetite (Choice A) is a common side effect of duloxetine and may not require immediate follow-up. Mood swings (Choice C) and insomnia (Choice D) are also possible side effects of the medication but are not as urgent as addressing suicidal ideation.

5. A 3-year-old boy was successfully toilet trained prior to his admission to the hospital for injuries sustained from a fall. His parents are very concerned that the child has regressed in his toileting behaviors. Which information should the nurse provide to the parents?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When children are hospitalized, it is common for them to regress in toileting behaviors due to the unfamiliar environment and stress. It is important for the nurse to provide reassurance to the parents in such situations. Option A is incorrect because suggesting neurological complications without evidence could cause unnecessary alarm. Option B is not the most appropriate response as the focus should be on explaining the common regression in toileting. Option D may not address the underlying reasons for the regression and may not be practical during the hospital stay.

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