Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing a client who had a BKA amputation for discharge to home. Which recommendations should the nurse provide this client?

• A. All of the above
• B. Inspect the skin for redness
• C. Use a residual limb shrinker
• D. Wash the stump with soap and water

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Proper care of the residual limb is essential in preventing complications like infection or poor healing. By choosing 'All of the above,' the nurse ensures that the client receives comprehensive care. Inspecting the skin for redness is crucial as it can help in early detection of infections. Using a residual limb shrinker helps reduce swelling and maintain proper shaping of the limb. Washing the stump with soap and water on a daily basis is important for hygiene and preventing infections. Therefore, all the recommendations (choices A, B, and C) are essential for the client's care, making choice A the correct answer. Choice D is incorrect as it does not encompass all the necessary recommendations for the client's care.

2. A client with acute pancreatitis is receiving nothing by mouth (NPO) status. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Administer antiemetic medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's intake and output.
• C. Provide mouth care to keep the client comfortable.
• D. Elevate the client's head of the bed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's intake and output. When a client with acute pancreatitis is on NPO status, the nurse's priority intervention is to monitor the client's intake and output. This is crucial to assess for signs of dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and to ensure the client is responding appropriately to treatment. Administering antiemetic medication (choice A) may be necessary for managing nausea and vomiting but is not the priority over monitoring intake and output. Providing mouth care (choice C) and elevating the client's head of the bed (choice D) are important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring intake and output to prevent complications in clients with NPO status due to acute pancreatitis.

3. An adolescent with intellectual disability is admitted for refusing to complete oral hygiene. A behavior modification program is recommended. Which reinforcement is best?

• A. Unit tasks for each omitted teeth brushing.
• B. Candy for each successfully completed hygiene task.
• C. Privilege restriction for refusing hygiene tasks.
• D. Preferred activities or tokens for compliance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best reinforcement strategy in this scenario is providing preferred activities or tokens for compliance. Positive reinforcement is effective in behavior modification programs for individuals with intellectual disabilities. Offering preferred activities or tokens serves as a reward for completing the desired behavior, in this case, oral hygiene tasks. Choices A, B, and C do not focus on reinforcing the desired behavior with positive incentives. Choice A does not provide a positive reinforcement for compliance but rather focuses on the omission of a task. Choice B uses candy, which may not be ideal for oral hygiene. Choice C involves punishment rather than positive reinforcement.

4. A client with lung cancer is admitted to palliative care. What is the nurse's priority assessment?

• A. Monitor respiratory status and oxygenation.
• B. Evaluate the client's mental status and cognition.
• C. Check the client’s pain level and provide comfort.
• D. Assess the client’s nutritional status and appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Monitoring respiratory status and oxygenation is crucial in clients with lung cancer, as metastasis to the lungs or pleural effusion can compromise breathing. This assessment helps in early identification of respiratory distress and the need for interventions to maintain adequate oxygenation. Choice B is important but not the priority in this situation. Evaluating mental status and cognition should follow after ensuring the client's physiological needs are met. Choice C, checking pain level and providing comfort, is essential but secondary to assessing respiratory status. Choice D, assessing nutritional status and appetite, is also important but not the priority when the client's breathing is at risk.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with an acute myocardial infarction. Which symptom requires immediate intervention?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Severe chest pain
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Severe chest pain is the hallmark symptom of an acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) and requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the heart muscle. Chest pain in this context is often described as crushing, pressure, tightness, or heaviness. It can radiate to the arms, neck, jaw, back, or upper abdomen. Other symptoms like dizziness, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting may also occur in acute myocardial infarction, but chest pain is the most critical sign requiring prompt action as it signifies inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. Shortness of breath may indicate heart failure, while nausea and vomiting can be associated with the sympathetic response to myocardial infarction. Dizziness could result from decreased cardiac output but is not as specific to myocardial infarction as severe chest pain.

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