Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor potassium levels.
• B. Monitor sodium levels.
• C. Monitor calcium levels.
• D. Monitor magnesium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. Why is it important for the healthcare provider to monitor blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect.
• B. Most antipsychotic drugs cause elevated blood pressure.
• C. This provides information on the amount of sodium allowed in the diet.
• D. It will indicate the need to institute antiparkinsonian drugs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: Monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is crucial because orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect. Orthostatic hypotension can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing, increasing the risk of falls and related injuries. Therefore, regular blood pressure monitoring helps healthcare providers detect and manage this potential side effect. Incorrect Choices Rationale: - Choice B is incorrect because while antipsychotic drugs can have various side effects, causing elevated blood pressure is not a common effect associated with them. - Choice C is unrelated to blood pressure monitoring in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs. Monitoring blood pressure in this context aims to detect and manage side effects of the medication, not to assess sodium intake. - Choice D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure in clients receiving antipsychotic drugs is primarily aimed at detecting orthostatic hypotension, not as an indicator for instituting antiparkinsonian drugs.

3. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports a weak pulse of 44 beats per minute in a client. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Have the UAP recheck the pulse and report back.
• B. Have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for apical-radial pulse deficit.
• C. Call the healthcare provider for further instructions.
• D. Immediately call the healthcare provider and prepare for transfer to critical care.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to have a licensed practical nurse (LPN) assess the client for an apical-radial pulse deficit. This assessment can provide further information about the client’s cardiovascular status and help determine if further intervention is necessary. Having the UAP recheck the pulse may delay appropriate assessment and intervention. Calling the healthcare provider for further instructions may not be necessary at this point unless the LPN assessment indicates a need for it. Immediately transferring the client to critical care without further assessment is not warranted based solely on the initial report of a weak pulse.

4. A client presents to the clinic with concerns about her left breast. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report?

• A. Multiple firm, round, freely movable masses.
• B. A slight asymmetry of the breasts.
• C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin.
• D. Bloody discharge from the nipple.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin is concerning for malignancy, such as breast cancer, and should be reported immediately for further evaluation. This finding is more suspicious compared to multiple firm, round, freely movable masses (choice A), which could be benign breast lumps. A slight asymmetry of the breasts (choice B) is a common finding and not as alarming as a fixed nodular mass with dimpling of the skin. Bloody discharge from the nipple (choice D) can be suggestive of other conditions like intraductal papilloma but is not as urgent as the finding described in choice C.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site should the nurse select?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal muscle
• C. Vastus lateralis muscle
• D. Dorsogluteal muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular injections in adults because it is free from major blood vessels and nerves, reducing the risk of injury. The deltoid muscle can be used for smaller volumes of medication, primarily vaccines. The vastus lateralis muscle is commonly used in infants, toddlers, and young children. The dorsogluteal muscle site is discouraged due to its proximity to the sciatic nerve, increasing the risk of injury or nerve damage.

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