Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is receiving spironolactone. What electrolyte level should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor potassium levels.
• B. Monitor sodium levels.
• C. Monitor calcium levels.
• D. Monitor magnesium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps the body retain potassium and excrete sodium. Monitoring potassium levels closely is essential because spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia (high potassium levels). Sodium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Calcium and magnesium levels are also not directly impacted by spironolactone, making choices B, C, and D incorrect.

2. In assessing a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus, the nurse notes that the client's respirations have changed from 16 breaths/min with a normal depth to 32 breaths/min and deep, and the client becomes lethargic. Which assessment data should the nurse obtain next?

• A. Pulse oximetry
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Arterial blood gases
• D. Serum electrolytes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Deep, rapid respirations (Kussmaul respirations) and lethargy are signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs in uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Checking the blood glucose is the priority to confirm hyperglycemia and guide immediate treatment. Pulse oximetry is not the priority in this situation as the issue is related to altered glucose levels, not oxygenation. Arterial blood gases and serum electrolytes may be important later in the management of DKA but are not the initial priority compared to confirming and addressing the hyperglycemia.

3. A young woman with multiple sclerosis just received several immunizations in preparation for moving into a college dormitory. Two days later, she reports to the nurse that she is experiencing increasing fatigue and visual problems. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Immunizations can trigger a relapse of the disease, so get plenty of extra rest
• B. Visual problems are unrelated to the recent immunizations
• C. Increase fluid intake to reduce symptoms of fatigue
• D. Consult the healthcare provider immediately for steroid therapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Immunizations can sometimes trigger relapses in multiple sclerosis due to the activation of the immune system. Extra rest can help manage these symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because visual problems can be associated with the immune response triggered by immunizations in individuals with multiple sclerosis. While increasing fluid intake is generally good advice, in this case, the nurse should focus on explaining the possible connection between the immunizations and the symptoms experienced. Choice D is not the immediate course of action; educating the patient on the potential link between immunizations and symptom exacerbation is more appropriate at this stage.

4. A client with pneumonia is prescribed antibiotics. What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to provide?

• A. Instruct the client to rest as much as possible.
• B. Encourage increased fluid intake to thin secretions.
• C. Explain the importance of completing the entire course of antibiotics.
• D. Instruct the client to stop taking antibiotics once symptoms subside.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Antibiotics must be taken for the entire prescribed duration to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated. Stopping antibiotics early, even if symptoms improve, can lead to a recurrence of the infection or antibiotic resistance. Choice A is incorrect because though rest is important, completing the antibiotic course is crucial. Choice B is incorrect as while hydration is beneficial, completing the antibiotics is the priority. Choice D is incorrect as stopping antibiotics prematurely can have negative consequences.

5. The nurse is providing care for a client with schizophrenia who receives haloperidol decanoate 75 mg IM every 4 weeks. The client begins developing puckering and smacking of the lips and facial grimacing. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Discontinue the medication immediately
• B. Increase the dose of haloperidol
• C. Complete the abnormal involuntary movement scale (AIMS)
• D. Monitor the client for signs of agitation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: These symptoms are characteristic of tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use. The nurse should assess the severity of these movements using the AIMS scale and report to the healthcare provider for further management. Discontinuing the medication abruptly (Choice A) can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition. Increasing the dose of haloperidol (Choice B) can exacerbate the symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. Monitoring for signs of agitation (Choice D) is important but does not address the specific side effect described.

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