HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. After teaching a client with early polycystic kidney disease (PKD) about nutritional therapy, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take a laxative every night before going to bed.
- B. I must increase my intake of dietary fiber and fluids.
- C. I shall only use salt when I am cooking my own food.
- D. I’ll eat white bread to minimize gastrointestinal gas.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer. Clients with PKD often experience constipation, which can be managed by increasing their intake of dietary fiber and fluids. This helps promote bowel regularity. Laxatives should be used cautiously and not as a routine solution. Choice A is incorrect as regular laxative use is not recommended. Choice C is incorrect as a low-salt diet is typically advised for clients with PKD, not just limiting salt while cooking. Choice D is incorrect as white bread is low in fiber and not beneficial for managing constipation, which is common in PKD.
2. The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive 10% calcium gluconate to treat a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse performs a drug history prior to beginning the infusion. Which drug taken by the patient would cause concern?
- A. Digitalis
- B. Hydrochlorothiazide
- C. Hydrocortisone
- D. Vitamin D
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered to treat hyperkalemia by reducing myocardial irritability. When given to a patient taking digitalis, it can lead to digitalis toxicity. Digitalis and calcium gluconate both affect cardiac function, and their concomitant use can potentiate adverse effects. Hydrochlorothiazide, Hydrocortisone, and Vitamin D may impact potassium levels, but they do not interact with calcium gluconate in a way that would cause concern for toxicity.
3. The client had a thyroidectomy 24 hours ago and reports experiencing numbness and tingling of the face. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Open and prepare the tracheostomy kit.
- B. Inspect the neck for an increase in swelling.
- C. Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign.
- D. Assess lung sounds for laryngeal stridor.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for the presence of Chvostek's sign. Chvostek's sign is a clinical indicator of hypocalcemia, a common complication after thyroidectomy. Numbness and tingling around the face are associated with hypocalcemia due to potential damage to the parathyroid glands during surgery, leading to decreased calcium levels. Inspecting the neck for swelling (choice B) is important but does not directly address the presenting symptoms. Opening and preparing the tracheostomy kit (choice A) is not necessary based on the client's current symptoms. Assessing lung sounds for laryngeal stridor (choice D) is not directly related to the client's reported numbness and tingling of the face.
4. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:
- A. Calls the physician
- B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
- C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
- D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.
5. Blood for arterial blood gas determinations is drawn from a client with pneumonia, and testing reveals a pH of 7.45, PCO2 of 30 mm Hg, and HCO3 of 19 mEq/L. The nurse interprets these results as indicative of:
- A. Compensated metabolic acidosis
- B. Compensated respiratory alkalosis
- C. Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
- D. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Compensated respiratory alkalosis.' In this case, the client's pH is within the normal range (7.35-7.45), indicating compensation. The low PCO2 (30 mm Hg) suggests respiratory alkalosis, while the low HCO3 (19 mEq/L) is also consistent with a compensatory response. Therefore, the client has a primary respiratory alkalosis that is being compensated for by metabolic acidosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not fit the pattern of the given blood gas values, which indicate respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation.
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