an unlicensed assistive personnel uap reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103 f 394 c blood p
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

2. Following the diagnosis of angina pectoris, a client reports being unable to walk up two flights of stairs without pain. Which of the following measures would most likely help the client prevent this problem?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to take a nitroglycerin tablet before climbing the stairs. Nitroglycerin helps prevent angina by dilating the coronary arteries, which increases blood flow to the heart. This medication can help reduce the chest pain and discomfort experienced during physical exertion. Climing the stairs early in the day (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of inadequate blood flow to the heart. Resting for at least an hour before climbing the stairs (Choice B) may not be as effective in preventing angina as taking nitroglycerin. Lying down after climbing the stairs (Choice D) does not offer a preventive measure for angina; it is more focused on post-activity rest rather than prevention.

3. A client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones is being taught by a nurse. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s dietary teaching? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For a client with a history of calcium phosphate urinary stones, it is essential to limit the intake of foods high in animal protein to prevent the formation of stones. Additionally, reducing sodium intake is crucial as high sodium levels can contribute to stone formation. Therefore, choices A and B are correct. Choice D, which suggests reducing intake of milk and other dairy products, is not specifically recommended for calcium phosphate stones. Clients with calcium phosphate stones should focus on limiting animal protein, sodium, and calcium intake. Choices A and B address these dietary modifications, making them the correct options for this client. Choices D, which is not directly related to calcium phosphate stones, is incorrect.

4. After educating a client with hypertension secondary to renal disease, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a need for additional teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is incorrect because the client should not restrict fluids during the day due to increased urination at night. Clients with renal disease may be prescribed fluid restrictions, and they should be thoroughly assessed for potential dehydration. To decrease increased nocturnal voiding, clients should consume fluids earlier in the day. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Managing blood pressure is crucial to slow the progression of renal dysfunction. Limiting protein intake is important in renal disease management, and clients should be referred to a dietitian as needed. Taking antihypertensive medications as directed is essential for blood pressure control.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled to have blood drawn for a fasting blood glucose determination in the morning. What does the nurse tell the client is acceptable to consume on the morning of the test?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Water. A client scheduled for a fasting blood glucose test should only consume water after midnight to ensure accurate test results. Choosing options B, C, or D, which include tea, coffee, or clear liquids like apple juice, is incorrect as they may contain substances that can affect the blood glucose levels, leading to inaccurate test results.

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