Nursing Elites

1. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an IV infusion of normal saline and notices that the infusion is not flowing. The insertion site is not inflamed or swollen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Check the tubing for kinks or obstructions.
• B. Increase the flow rate to improve the infusion.
• C. Reinsert the IV catheter in another vein.
• D. Call the physician for further instructions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when an IV infusion is not flowing despite a normal insertion site is to check the tubing for kinks or obstructions. This step is crucial to ensure that there are no preventable issues impeding the flow of the IV solution. Increasing the flow rate without addressing potential obstructions could lead to complications such as infiltration. Reinserting the IV catheter in another vein should only be considered after ruling out tubing issues. Calling the physician for further instructions is not necessary at this stage as troubleshooting the tubing should be the initial intervention.

3. What types of medications should the healthcare provider expect to administer to a client during an acute respiratory distress episode?

• A. Vasodilators and hormones.
• B. Analgesics and sedatives.
• C. Anticoagulants and expectorants.
• D. Bronchodilators and steroids.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During an acute respiratory distress episode, the priority is to widen air passages, increase air space, and reduce alveolar membrane inflammation. Therefore, the client would likely require bronchodilators to open up the airways and steroids to reduce inflammation. Vasodilators and hormones (Choice A) are not typically indicated in this situation. Analgesics and sedatives (Choice B) may be used for pain management and anxiety but are not primary treatments for respiratory distress. Anticoagulants and expectorants (Choice C) are not the main medications used during an acute respiratory distress episode and may not address the immediate needs of the client.

4. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

5. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?

• A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
• B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
• C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
• D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.

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