a nurse reviews the allergy list of a client who is scheduled for an intravenous urography which client allergy should alert the nurse to urgently con a nurse reviews the allergy list of a client who is scheduled for an intravenous urography which client allergy should alert the nurse to urgently con
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam

1. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

2. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

3. When reviewing developmental changes with the parents of a 6-month-old infant, what information should the practical nurse reinforce?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because providing a developmentally safe environment for a 6-month-old infant is crucial as they begin to explore their surroundings more actively. This includes ensuring that the environment is free of hazards and that the infant is supervised to prevent accidents. Choice A is incorrect because self-feeding finger foods may not be developmentally appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. Choice B is incorrect as most infants are able to sit up with support around 6 months of age without the need for specific teaching strategies. Choice D is also incorrect as while appetite changes can occur, explaining a specific increase in appetite over the next 6 months is not a primary focus when discussing developmental changes with parents of a 6-month-old.

4. The weight of the non-pregnant uterus is approximately ___________grams.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 80. The non-pregnant uterus typically weighs around 80 grams. This weight may vary slightly among individuals, but 80 grams is a commonly accepted average. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the typical weight of the non-pregnant uterus. It is important to remember this approximate weight for medical reference and understanding of normal anatomical variations.

5. Which of the following is a sign of hypocalcemia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperactive reflexes are a classic sign of hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia leads to increased neuromuscular excitability, resulting in hyperactive reflexes. Depressed reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Muscle cramps (Choice C) can be seen in hypocalcemia due to muscle irritability but are not a specific sign. Seizures (Choice D) can occur in severe cases of hypocalcemia but are not as common as hyperactive reflexes.

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