HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, how many weeks of pregnancy is Medical Termination of Pregnancy considered safe up to?
- A. 8 Weeks
- B. 12 Weeks
- C. 18 Weeks
- D. 6 Weeks
Correct answer: B
Rationale: According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971, Medical Termination of Pregnancy is considered safe up to 12 weeks of pregnancy. This timeframe is crucial to ensure the safety and well-being of the individual undergoing the procedure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the legal provisions outlined in the MTP Act, 1971.
2. A client with pneumonia is receiving intravenous (IV) antibiotics. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Client's respiratory rate decreases from 24 to 20 breaths per minute
- B. White blood cell count decreases to normal range
- C. Client reports increased energy levels
- D. Cough becomes productive with green sputum
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment and the client's condition is improving. Monitoring the white blood cell count is a more objective indicator of the body's response to the antibiotics. Choices A, C, and D may also be positive signs, but they are less specific and may vary among individuals. Respiratory rate alone may not be sufficient to indicate improvement, as other factors can influence it. Energy levels and cough characteristics are subjective and may not always correlate with the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.
- B. Reticulocyte count of 1%.
- C. Blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg.
- D. Serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL. Erythropoietin therapy stimulates red blood cell production, leading to an increase in hemoglobin levels. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL indicates that the therapy is effective in managing anemia associated with chronic kidney disease. Choice B, a reticulocyte count of 1%, is not a direct indicator of the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice C, a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, is important to monitor in clients with chronic kidney disease but does not specifically indicate the effectiveness of erythropoietin therapy. Choice D, a serum ferritin level of 100 ng/mL, is related to iron stores in the body and may be monitored during erythropoietin therapy but does not directly reflect the therapy's effectiveness in increasing red blood cell production.
4. The mother calls the clinic and tells the practical nurse (PN) that her child cannot swallow a prescribed tablet that was dispensed by the local pharmacy as a whole tablet. How should the PN respond?
- A. You can crush the tablet and mix it with food.
- B. You should not force the child to swallow the tablets by holding her nose closed.
- C. If a liquid form is available, the pharmacist can be contacted for a prescription change.
- D. Do not advise the child to chew the tablet if she cannot swallow it.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a child is unable to swallow a tablet, the appropriate response is to consider if a liquid form of the medication is available. This is a safer and more effective alternative than forcing the child to swallow or chew the tablet. Contacting the pharmacist for a prescription change can provide a suitable solution that ensures the child receives the medication in a more manageable form. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because crushing the tablet and mixing it with food may alter the medication's effectiveness or taste, forcing the child to swallow or holding her nose closed can be distressing and ineffective, and advising the child to chew the tablet is not recommended as an alternative to swallowing it.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient whose serum sodium level is 140 mEq/L and serum potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. The nurse will contact the patient’s provider to discuss an order for
- A. a low-potassium diet.
- B. intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
- C. Kayexalate and sorbitol.
- D. salt substitutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the patient is experiencing mild hyperkalemia with a potassium level of 5.4 mEq/L. The appropriate intervention for mild hyperkalemia is a low-potassium diet to restrict potassium intake. This helps in managing and preventing further elevation of potassium levels. Intravenous sodium bicarbonate is not indicated as the patient's sodium level is normal at 140 mEq/L. Kayexalate, a cation-exchange resin, is typically used for severe hyperkalemia to promote potassium excretion. Salt substitutes, which often contain potassium chloride, should be avoided in patients with hyperkalemia as they can exacerbate the condition by increasing potassium levels further.