HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Questions
1. Which of the following is included in a pelvic examination?
- A. Inspection of internal genitalia
- B. Inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall
- C. Palpation of the vagina and vaginal cervix by digital examination
- D. Rectal examination
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A pelvic examination involves the inspection of the cervix and vaginal wall. This is typically done to assess the health of the reproductive organs and screen for any abnormalities. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because while palpation and digital examination may be part of a pelvic exam, the specific focus on the cervix and vaginal wall is a key component that distinguishes it from other types of examinations.
2. Which of the following methods is used for permanent contraception in males?
- A. Vasectomy
- B. Tubal ligation
- C. Condoms
- D. Coitus interruptus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasectomy. Vasectomy is a surgical procedure for permanent contraception in males by cutting or blocking the vas deferens. Choice B, Tubal ligation, is a method for permanent contraception in females by blocking or sealing the fallopian tubes. Choice C, Condoms, provide a barrier method of contraception but are not permanent. Choice D, Coitus interruptus, involves withdrawing the penis before ejaculation and is not a reliable method of contraception.
3. Which of the following is a function of the placenta?
- A. The placenta secretes insulin.
- B. The placenta facilitates the exchange of gases and nutrients between mother and fetus.
- C. The placenta provides immunological protection to the fetus.
- D. The placenta stores fat-soluble vitamins for the fetus.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The placenta serves as a crucial organ during pregnancy, facilitating the exchange of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and nutrients (such as glucose and amino acids) between the mother and the developing fetus. This exchange is vital for the fetus's growth and development. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. The placenta does not secrete insulin; insulin is produced by the pancreas. While the placenta provides some immune support to the fetus, its main role is not immunological protection. Additionally, storing fat-soluble vitamins is not a primary function of the placenta.
4. What is Dinoprostone commonly used for?
- A. Cervical priming.
- B. Pain management during labor.
- C. Management of pre-term labor.
- D. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dinoprostone is commonly used for the management of pre-term labor. While it can be used for cervical priming, its primary indication is for pre-term labor. Choice A is partially correct but not the most common use of Dinoprostone. Choices B and D are incorrect as Dinoprostone is not primarily used for pain management during labor or for the management of post-partum hemorrhage.
5. A solid ball of 12-16 cells having undergone mitotic division after fertilization is:
- A. Zygote
- B. Blastomere
- C. Morula
- D. Blastocyst
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A morula is a stage in embryonic development where a solid ball of 12-16 cells is formed after several rounds of mitotic division following fertilization. The zygote is the initial cell formed by the fusion of sperm and egg. Blastomere refers to individual cells in a developing embryo. A blastocyst is a later stage where a fluid-filled cavity forms within the embryo. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Morula.'
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