HESI RN
Reproductive System Exam Quizlet
1. When does a broad ligament haematoma occur?
- A. Rupture occurs in the mesenteric border of the tube.
- B. Rupture occurs in the ovarian ligament.
- C. Rupture occurs in the broad ligament.
- D. Rupture occurs in the uterine wall.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A broad ligament hematoma occurs when there is a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube. This typically happens due to trauma or other underlying conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because a broad ligament hematoma specifically involves a rupture in the mesenteric border of the tube, not the ovarian ligament, broad ligament, or uterine wall.
2. What is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. HIV
- C. Ascariasis
- D. Malaria
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Malaria is the most common cause of abortion in Zambia due to its significant impact on maternal health. Malaria can lead to severe complications during pregnancy, increasing the risk of spontaneous abortion. Tuberculosis (Choice A), HIV (Choice B), and Ascariasis (Choice C) are serious health conditions, but they are not typically identified as the primary cause of abortion in Zambia as malaria.
3. Which of the following hormone ratios is MOST likely to be increased in a patient with PCOS?
- A. Progesterone/estrogen
- B. LH/FSH
- C. FSH/LH
- D. Glucagon/insulin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In patients with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS), the LH/FSH ratio is most likely to be increased. This hormonal imbalance is a key characteristic of PCOS, where elevated LH levels relative to FSH contribute to the pathophysiology of the condition. Choice A, progesterone/estrogen ratio, is not typically a defining feature of PCOS. Choice C, FSH/LH ratio, is the reverse of what is commonly observed in PCOS. Choice D, glucagon/insulin ratio, is not directly related to the hormonal imbalances seen in PCOS.
4. Which one of the following is not associated with poor maternal outcome?
- A. APH
- B. PPH
- C. Cord prolapse
- D. Pre-eclampsia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Cord prolapse is not typically associated with poor maternal outcomes. Acute placental hemorrhage (APH - choice A) and postpartum hemorrhage (PPH - choice B) can lead to maternal morbidity and mortality due to excessive blood loss. Pre-eclampsia (choice D) is a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and signs of damage to other organ systems, which can result in severe maternal complications if not managed promptly. Cord prolapse, though concerning for fetal well-being, does not inherently pose direct risks to maternal health if managed appropriately, making it the correct answer in this context.
5. What is Diazepam used for?
- A. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.
- B. Management of pre-eclampsia.
- C. Induction of labor.
- D. Relieving anxiety.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diazepam is primarily used for relieving anxiety and muscle spasms. It is a benzodiazepine medication that works by enhancing the effects of a neurotransmitter in the brain to produce a calming effect. While Diazepam is not used for managing post-partum hemorrhage, pre-eclampsia, or inducing labor, it is essential in treating anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and certain types of seizures. Therefore, option D is the correct answer as it aligns with the primary therapeutic use of Diazepam.
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