Nursing Elites

1. A young adult is burned when wearing a shirt that was splashed with lighter fluid and caught on fire while attempting to light a charcoal grill. The client ripped off the shirt immediately, without unbuttoning the sleeves, which caused circumferential burns to both wrists. When the client is admitted, which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Monitor pulse intensity.
• B. Evaluate extremity sensation.
• C. Assess range of motion.
• D. Place sterile bandage on both wrists.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring pulse intensity is the priority to ensure circulation is not compromised due to circumferential burns.

2. When preparing to examine a client’s skin using a Wood light, what should the nurse do to facilitate this procedure?

• A. Darken the examining room
• B. Administer a local anesthetic
• C. Obtain a signed informed consent
• D. Shave the skin and scrub it with povidone-iodine (Betadine)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When using a Wood light to examine the skin, the nurse should darken the examining room. This is necessary because the Wood light emits long-wavelength UV light, which is better visualized in a darkened environment. Administering a local anesthetic (Choice B) is not needed for this procedure. Obtaining a signed informed consent (Choice C) is not directly related to using a Wood light for skin examination. Shaving the skin and scrubbing it with povidone-iodine (Betadine) (Choice D) is not required and may not be appropriate for this type of skin examination.

3. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal).
• B. Captopril (Capoten).
• C. Furosemide (Lasix).
• D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

4. The client who has a history of Parkinson's disease for the past 5 years is being assessed by the nurse. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?

• A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and grimaces, and constant writhing movements.
• B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
• C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
• D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Parkinson's Disease, a common neurologic progressive disorder in older clients, is characterized by symptoms such as shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head and hands. Choice A is incorrect as symptoms like loss of short-term memory, facial tics, and constant writhing movements are not typically associated with Parkinson's disease. Choice C is incorrect as extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis are more indicative of other conditions like myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances are not classic symptoms of Parkinson's disease.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

• A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
• B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
• C. Peripheral neuropathy.
• D. Uremic fetor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

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