HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. A female patient who is allergic to penicillin will begin taking an antibiotic to treat a lower respiratory tract infection. The patient tells the nurse that she almost always develops a vaginal yeast infection when she takes antibiotics and that she will take fluconazole (Diflucan) with the antibiotic being prescribed. Which macrolide should the nurse question for this patient?
- A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
- B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
- C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
- D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should question the prescription of erythromycin for this patient. When erythromycin is given concurrently with fluconazole, erythromycin blood concentration and the risk of sudden cardiac death increase. Therefore, it is not recommended to use erythromycin in combination with fluconazole for this patient. Azithromycin, clarithromycin, and fidaxomicin are alternative macrolide antibiotics that can be considered for this patient without the same risk of interactions when used with fluconazole.
2. A nurse cares for a client with urinary incontinence. The client states, “I am so embarrassed. My bladder leaks like a young child’s bladder.” How should the nurse respond?
- A. I understand how you feel. I would be mortified.
- B. Incontinence pads will minimize leaks in public.
- C. I can teach you strategies to help control your incontinence.
- D. More women experience incontinence than you might think.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should accept and acknowledge the client’s concerns, and assist the client to learn techniques that will allow control of urinary incontinence. The nurse should not diminish the client’s concerns with the use of pads or stating statistics about the occurrence of incontinence.
3. The client has been receiving peritoneal dialysis. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following complications that is most likely to occur?
- A. Electrolyte imbalance
- B. Peritonitis
- C. Infection
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Peritonitis is the most likely complication to occur in clients receiving peritoneal dialysis due to the risk of infection. Peritonitis is a serious inflammation of the peritoneum lining the abdominal cavity, commonly caused by infection. While electrolyte imbalance and hyperglycemia are possible complications in some cases, peritonitis poses a more immediate and severe threat to the client's health. Infection is a general term that can encompass peritonitis but is not as specific as directly identifying peritonitis as the primary concern in this scenario.
4. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
- B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
- C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
- D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.
5. A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Stress incontinence – Urine loss with physical exertion
- B. Urge incontinence – Large amount of urine with each occurrence
- C. Overflow incontinence – Constant dribbling of urine
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the choices are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with a sudden and strong urge to void, often accompanied by a large amount of urine released during each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is distended, leading to a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence, not mentioned in the options, is the leakage of urine due to factors unrelated to a lower urinary tract disorder. Reflex incontinence, also not mentioned, is a condition resulting from abnormal detrusor contractions.
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