Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
• B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
• C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
• D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.

2. When preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP), which action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Administering a sedative
• B. Encouraging fluid intake
• C. Administering an oral preparation of radiopaque dye
• D. Questioning the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action for the nurse when preparing a client for intravenous pyelography (IVP) is to question the client about allergies to iodine or shellfish. Some IVP dyes contain iodine, and if the client is allergic to iodine or shellfish, they may experience severe allergic reactions such as itching, hives, rash, throat tightness, difficulty breathing, or bronchospasm. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may be needed for relaxation during the procedure, encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) is generally beneficial but not the most crucial for IVP preparation, and administering radiopaque dye (Choice C) should only be done after confirming the client's safety regarding allergies to iodine or shellfish.

3. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24 hours with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackles and bounding central pulse. Vital signs: temperature 101.2 F (38.4 C), heart rate 96 beats/minute, respiration 24 breaths/minute, and blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Calculate total intake and output for the last 24 hours.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, abdominal pain, headache, crackles in the lungs, bounding pulse, and elevated blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids to a keep vein open (KVO) rate is crucial to prevent further fluid overload. This intervention helps in balancing fluid intake and output to prevent complications associated with fluid volume excess. Calculating total intake and output (Choice A) may be necessary but not the immediate priority in managing fluid overload. Administering acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with managing the fever but does not address the underlying issue of fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation where fluid overload is a concern.

4. Which of the following is a key symptom of myocardial infarction (MI)?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Nausea.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chest pain. Chest pain is a hallmark symptom of myocardial infarction (MI) due to inadequate blood flow to the heart muscle. This pain can be severe, crushing, or squeezing, and may radiate to the left arm, jaw, or back. Shortness of breath (choice B), nausea (choice C), and fatigue (choice D) can accompany MI but are not as specific or characteristic as chest pain in diagnosing this condition. Therefore, chest pain is the primary symptom to recognize for suspected MI.

5. A client is scheduled to have an arteriogram. During the arteriogram, the client reports having nausea, tingling, and dyspnea. The nurse's immediate action should be to:

• A. Administer epinephrine.
• B. Inform the physician.
• C. Administer oxygen.
• D. Inform the client that the procedure is almost over.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to inform the physician. The symptoms described - nausea, tingling, and dyspnea - indicate a potential allergic reaction to the contrast dye used in the arteriogram. It is crucial to notify the physician promptly so that further assessment and appropriate interventions can be initiated. Administering epinephrine without physician guidance can be dangerous as the physician needs to evaluate the severity of the reaction and determine the necessary treatment. Administering oxygen may be needed but should be done under the physician's direction. Informing the client that the procedure is almost over is not a priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of a possible allergic reaction.

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