Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is preparing to administer clarithromycin to a patient. When performing a medication history, the nurse learns that the patient takes warfarin to treat atrial fibrillation. The nurse will perform which action?

• A. Ask the provider if azithromycin may be used instead of clarithromycin.
• B. Obtain an order for continuous cardiovascular monitoring.
• C. Request an order for periodic serum warfarin levels.
• D. Withhold the clarithromycin and notify the provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient taking warfarin also needs to receive clarithromycin, it is essential to monitor periodic serum warfarin levels. Macrolides, including clarithromycin, can increase serum levels of drugs like warfarin. Monitoring serum drug levels helps ensure that the patient's warfarin dose can be adjusted, if necessary, to maintain therapeutic levels. Asking about using azithromycin instead is not the most appropriate action in this situation, as all macrolides can interact with warfarin. Continuous cardiovascular monitoring is not indicated solely based on the use of clarithromycin. Withholding the clarithromycin without proper assessment could delay necessary treatment and is not the best initial action.

2. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who is receiving prednisone 5 mg PO daily for a rash due to contact with poison ivy. Which symptoms should the nurse tell the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Rapid weight gain
• B. Abdominal striae
• C. Moon faces
• D. Gastric irritation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rapid weight gain can indicate fluid retention, which is a serious side effect of prednisone and should be reported.

3. A male client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is refusing to take his medication and has missed two hemodialysis appointments. What is the best initial action for the nurse?

• A. Discuss what the treatment regimen means to him.
• B. Refer the client to a mental health nurse practitioner.
• C. Reschedule the appointments to another date and time.
• D. Discuss the option of peritoneal dialysis.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best initial action for the nurse in this scenario is to have a discussion with the client about what the treatment regimen means to him. It is important to assess the client's anxiety, coping styles, and acceptance of the required treatment for CKD. The client may be in denial of the diagnosis or may have concerns that need to be addressed. While rescheduling hemodialysis appointments could be helpful, referring the client to a mental health nurse practitioner or discussing peritoneal dialysis are not the most appropriate first steps. Understanding the client's perspective and concerns is crucial before exploring other interventions.

4. A client has just been scheduled for endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP). What should the nurse tell the client about the procedure? Select all that apply.

• A. That informed consent is required
• B. That the test takes about 1 hour to complete
• C. That premedication for sedation may be necessary
• D. That food and fluids will be withheld before the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is that the ERCP procedure takes about 1 hour to complete. Informed consent is required before the procedure. Premedication for sedation may be necessary as sedation is commonly used during ERCP to keep the client comfortable. Food and fluids are withheld before the procedure to prevent aspiration and ensure a clear view during the procedure. Position changes may be necessary to facilitate the passage of the tube.

5. A nurse plans care for clients with urinary incontinence. Which client is correctly paired with the appropriate intervention?

• A. A 29-year-old client after a difficult vaginal delivery – Habit training
• B. A 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy – Electrical stimulation
• C. A 64-year-old female with Alzheimer’s-type senile dementia – Bladder training
• D. A 77-year-old female who has difficulty ambulating – Exercise therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct pairing is a 58-year-old postmenopausal client who is not taking estrogen therapy with electrical stimulation. Electrical stimulation is used for clients with stress incontinence related to menopause and low estrogen levels. Exercise therapy improves pelvic wall strength and is not specifically for ambulation issues. Habit training is more effective for cognitively impaired clients, like those with Alzheimer's-type senile dementia. Bladder training requires the client to be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate, which may not be suitable for clients with cognitive impairments.

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