a toddler presenting with a history of intermittent skin rashes hives abdominal pain and vomiting that occurs after ingesting milk products arrives at
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone

1. A toddler presenting with a history of intermittent skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting that occurs after ingesting milk products arrives at the clinic accompanied by the parents. Which type of testing should the nurse educate the toddler's family about?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) testing. This test can help diagnose food allergies, including milk protein allergies, in toddlers presenting with symptoms like skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting after consuming milk products. Skin allergy testing is used for allergies but may not be suitable for this age group due to developmental factors. Lactose intolerance, which is different from a milk allergy, is assessed through a lactose tolerance test, not IgE testing. A complete blood count (CBC) would not provide specific information related to food allergies.

2. A client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with multiple sclerosis is receiving intravenous methylprednisolone, the nurse's priority action is to monitor for signs of infection. Corticosteroids like methylprednisolone can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection allows for early detection and prompt intervention. Monitoring blood glucose levels may be important in clients receiving corticosteroids for prolonged periods, but it is not the priority in this case. Encouraging increased oral fluid intake is generally beneficial but not the priority over monitoring for infection. Checking the client's temperature is important but not the priority action compared to monitoring for signs of infection.

3. A client with chronic liver disease is prescribed lactulose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum ammonia level. Lactulose is used to lower serum ammonia levels in clients with chronic liver disease, particularly in cases of hepatic encephalopathy. Monitoring serum ammonia levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of lactulose in managing hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the action or evaluation of lactulose in chronic liver disease.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing paranoia. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging clients with paranoia to express their concerns and validating their feelings is crucial as it helps establish trust and reduce anxiety. This approach also aids in building a therapeutic relationship. Reassuring the client that their fears are unfounded (Choice A) may invalidate their feelings and worsen trust. Placing the client in a private room to reduce stimuli (Choice B) may be helpful in some situations but does not address the underlying issue of paranoia. Providing a distraction (Choice C) may temporarily shift the client's focus but does not address the root cause of the paranoia. Therefore, the priority intervention is to encourage the client to express their concerns and validate their feelings.

5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin and reports tarry stools. What should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client on heparin reports tarry stools, it can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding. The correct action for the nurse is to monitor the stools for blood and review the Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT) results. This is essential to detect any potential bleeding complications associated with heparin therapy. Option A is incorrect because warfarin is not the immediate intervention for tarry stools in a client on heparin. Option B is irrelevant to the situation described. Option D is incorrect as Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin, not heparin.

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