Nursing Elites

1. A toddler presenting with a history of intermittent skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting that occurs after ingesting milk products arrives at the clinic accompanied by the parents. Which type of testing should the nurse educate the toddler's family about?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Lactose tolerance test
• C. Skin allergy testing
• D. Serum immunoglobulin E

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) testing. This test can help diagnose food allergies, including milk protein allergies, in toddlers presenting with symptoms like skin rashes, hives, abdominal pain, and vomiting after consuming milk products. Skin allergy testing is used for allergies but may not be suitable for this age group due to developmental factors. Lactose intolerance, which is different from a milk allergy, is assessed through a lactose tolerance test, not IgE testing. A complete blood count (CBC) would not provide specific information related to food allergies.

2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the nurse's priority teaching?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid direct sunlight while taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication with meals to prevent nausea.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take the medication with a full glass of water.' It is crucial for the nurse to teach the client to take ciprofloxacin with a full glass of water to prevent crystalluria, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because ciprofloxacin does not require avoiding direct sunlight. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with meals is not necessary to prevent nausea. Choice D is incorrect as dizziness is not a common reason to discontinue ciprofloxacin.

3. When teaching a group of mothers of young children about emergency care for poisoning, which of the following statements should be included?

• A. Induce vomiting immediately after the poison ingestion
• B. Call the local Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting
• C. Call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions
• D. Take the child to the emergency department before calling the Poison Control Center

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching about emergency care for poisoning is to call the Poison Control Center prior to any interventions. This is important because the Poison Control Center can provide guidance on the appropriate steps to take based on the type of poisoning, the amount ingested, and the age of the child. Inducing vomiting without professional advice can sometimes do more harm than good. Choice A is incorrect because inducing vomiting immediately is not recommended without consulting with professionals. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests calling the Poison Control Center after inducing vomiting, which is not the recommended sequence. Choice D is incorrect because it is advisable to contact the Poison Control Center first before taking the child to the emergency department.

4. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Monitor the client’s liver function tests.
• B. Monitor the client’s prothrombin time (PT).
• C. Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT).
• D. Monitor the client’s red blood cell count.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

5. A client with dyspnea is being admitted to the medical unit. To best prepare for the client's arrival, the nurse should ensure that the client's bed is in which position?

• A. Trendelenburg
• B. Supine
• C. Prone
• D. Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fowler's position (head elevated at 45-60 degrees) improves oxygenation by expanding the lungs, making it the best position for clients with dyspnea. Supine or prone positions restrict lung expansion, and Trendelenburg position (head down) can exacerbate breathing difficulties by increasing pressure on the lungs and diaphragm.

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