HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?
- A. The client has been taking multiple medications
- B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
- C. The client's vital signs are stable
- D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.
2. A client with acute pancreatitis is admitted with severe, piercing abdominal pain and an elevated serum amylase. Which additional information is the client most likely to report to the nurse?
- A. Pain radiates to the back
- B. Nausea and vomiting without relief
- C. Abdominal pain decreases when lying supine
- D. Abdominal pain is worse after eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. In acute pancreatitis, abdominal pain typically worsens after eating due to the stimulation of the pancreas to release enzymes that irritate the inflamed tissues. Pain relief when lying supine is uncommon and usually exacerbates discomfort. While nausea and vomiting are common symptoms, they are not as indicative of changes in pain intensity. Pain radiating to the back is characteristic but does not specifically relate to exacerbation post-eating.
3. The nurse is planning to administer two medications at 0900. Which property of the drugs indicates a need to monitor the client for toxicity?
- A. Short half-life
- B. High therapeutic index
- C. Highly protein-bound
- D. Low bioavailability
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Highly protein-bound.' Drugs that are highly protein-bound can displace from protein-binding sites, leading to increased free drug levels in the blood, which can result in toxicity. Monitoring the client for toxicity is crucial when administering highly protein-bound drugs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A short half-life does not necessarily indicate a need for monitoring toxicity; a high therapeutic index indicates a wide safety margin between the effective dose and the toxic dose, reducing the risk of toxicity; low bioavailability refers to the fraction of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation unchanged and does not directly relate to the risk of toxicity.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. What is the nurse's priority action when preparing this client for surgery?
- A. Ensure the client is NPO before surgery
- B. Monitor the client's blood glucose levels
- C. Administer the client's insulin as scheduled
- D. Teach the client about postoperative care
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor the client's blood glucose levels. Clients with diabetes are at risk for perioperative complications related to blood glucose fluctuations. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to maintaining proper management before, during, and after surgery. Option A is not the priority action as ensuring NPO status is a standard preoperative procedure for all clients. Option C could be important but is secondary to monitoring blood glucose levels. Option D is important but not the priority during the preoperative phase.
5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the emergency department with confusion, sweating, and a blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
- B. Provide a carbohydrate snack
- C. Check the client's urine for ketones
- D. Start an insulin drip
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A blood sugar level of 45 mg/dL indicates severe hypoglycemia, which can lead to life-threatening complications if not treated immediately. The priority is to administer IV dextrose to rapidly increase the blood sugar level. Administering 50% dextrose IV push will provide a quick source of glucose to raise the blood sugar. Providing a carbohydrate snack is not the immediate priority in this critical situation. Checking the client's urine for ketones is important in diabetic ketoacidosis, not for hypoglycemia. Starting an insulin drip would further lower the blood sugar and worsen the client's condition.
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