HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2023 Capstone
1. An older client is brought to the ED with a sudden onset of confusion that occurred after experiencing a fall at home. The client's daughter, who has power of attorney, has brought the client's prescriptions. Which information should the nurse provide first when reporting to the healthcare provider using SBAR communication?
- A. The client has been taking multiple medications
- B. The client is experiencing increasing confusion
- C. The client's vital signs are stable
- D. The client fell at home and has sustained bruises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When utilizing the SBAR communication method, the nurse should prioritize reporting the client's increasing confusion to the healthcare provider first. Sudden onset of confusion in an older adult following a fall can indicate serious underlying conditions like a head injury, medication reaction, or infection. Addressing the confusion as the primary concern ensures prompt assessment and appropriate treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent as the client's increasing confusion and may be addressed after ensuring immediate attention to the potential critical issue.
2. A client at 12 weeks gestation is admitted to the antepartum unit with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Provide emotional support
- B. Monitor daily weight
- C. Encourage small frequent meals
- D. Initiate prescribed intravenous fluids
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum, characterized by severe nausea and vomiting, leads to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. The priority intervention is initiating IV fluids to correct these imbalances. Providing emotional support is important for the client's well-being, but addressing fluid and electrolyte imbalances takes precedence. Monitoring daily weight and encouraging small frequent meals are beneficial interventions but are not the priority when managing hyperemesis gravidarum.
3. A client is receiving lactulose for signs of hepatic encephalopathy. To evaluate the therapeutic response, which assessment should the nurse obtain?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. Lactulose is used to reduce ammonia levels in hepatic encephalopathy, which can affect brain function. Therefore, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic response. Changes in consciousness can indicate the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are important assessments in various conditions, they are not specifically related to evaluating the therapeutic response of lactulose in hepatic encephalopathy.
4. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?
- A. Take the medication only when experiencing severe chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a dark container to protect it from light.
- C. Take the medication before engaging in physical activity that may trigger chest pain.
- D. Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 10. What does this score indicate?
- A. Mild impairment
- B. Moderate impairment
- C. Severe impairment
- D. Normal
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 10 falls into the range of moderate impairment, indicating the need for further assessment and monitoring. A GCS score of 10 suggests that the client is moderately impaired neurologically. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a GCS score of 10 does not indicate mild impairment, severe impairment, or normal neurological status, respectively.
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