Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which preparation is the most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer an enema before the procedure.
• B. Ensure the client is NPO after midnight.
• C. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids.
• D. Verify the client has completed the bowel preparation.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to verify that the client has completed the bowel preparation. This step is crucial to ensure the colon is clear for accurate visualization during the procedure. Administering an enema before the procedure may not always be necessary and can be uncomfortable for the client. Ensuring the client is NPO after midnight is important, but verifying bowel preparation takes precedence. Encouraging the client to drink clear liquids is a part of the preparation process but not the most critical step compared to verifying completion of bowel preparation.

2. When conducting diet teaching for a client on a postoperative full liquid diet, which foods should the nurse encourage the client to eat?

• A. Yogurt, milk, and pudding
• B. Tea, lentils, and potato soup
• C. Ice cream, broth, and fruit smoothies
• D. Orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A full liquid diet includes foods that are liquid or will turn liquid at room temperature. Yogurt, milk, and pudding are appropriate choices as they align with the consistency requirements of a full liquid diet. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tea, lentils, potato soup, ice cream, fruit smoothies, orange juice, mashed potatoes, and soft cheese are not typically part of a full liquid diet. These options either contain solid elements or are not in liquid form, which makes them unsuitable for a postoperative full liquid diet.

3. A client with a ruptured spleen underwent an emergency splenectomy. Twelve hours later, the client’s urine output is 25 ml/hour. What is the most likely cause?

• A. This is a normal finding after surgery.
• B. Oliguria signals tubular necrosis related to hypoperfusion.
• C. Oliguria signals dehydration and fluid loss.
• D. Urine output of 25 ml/hour is an expected finding after splenectomy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oliguria, or decreased urine output, after surgery can indicate tubular necrosis due to hypoperfusion, which may require intervention to restore renal function. Choice A is incorrect as oliguria is not a normal finding after surgery. Choice C is incorrect because dehydration is less likely in this context compared to tubular necrosis. Choice D is incorrect as a urine output of 25 ml/hour is not expected after splenectomy and should raise concern for renal impairment.

4. The nurse is providing education to a client who experiences recurrent levels of moderate anxiety in response to situations and perceived stress. In addition to information about prescribed medication and administration, which instruction should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Practice using muscle relaxation techniques
• B. Take medication only when anxiety is at its worst
• C. Avoid interactions that trigger stress
• D. Engage in exercise during anxious periods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Teaching relaxation techniques, such as muscle relaxation, helps the client manage anxiety more effectively. These techniques can be practiced regularly to reduce overall anxiety and can complement prescribed medications. Choice B is incorrect because medication should be taken as prescribed, not only when anxiety is at its worst. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding interactions that trigger stress may not always be feasible and does not teach the client coping mechanisms. Choice D is incorrect as engaging in exercise during anxious periods may not be the most effective strategy for managing moderate anxiety levels.

5. The nurse receives a report on an older adult client with middle stage dementia. What information suggests the nurse should do immediate follow-up rather than delegate care to the nursing assistant?

• A. Has had a change in respiratory rate with an increase of 2 breaths
• B. Has had a change in heart rate with an increase of 10 beats
• C. Was minimally responsive to voice and touch
• D. Has had a blood pressure change with a drop of 8 mmHg systolic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A change in responsiveness, as indicated by being minimally responsive to voice and touch, suggests a potential acute issue that requires immediate nursing assessment and intervention rather than delegation. Changes in vital signs (choices A, B, D) can be important but do not always indicate an immediate need for nursing intervention compared to a change in responsiveness.

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