the nurse is caring for a 69 year old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive person
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. The nurse is caring for a 69-year-old client with a diagnosis of hyperglycemia. Which tasks could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because measuring urine output is a task that falls within the UAP's scope of practice and does not require clinical decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because testing blood sugar using Accu-Chek involves interpreting results and possible adjustments, which require a licensed healthcare provider. Choice B is incorrect as discussing signs of hyperglycemia involves education and interpretation that should be done by a nurse. Choice C is incorrect since administering insulin is a high-risk task that necessitates precise dosing and monitoring, thus should not be delegated to UAP.

2. A client with anxiety disorder is experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery. What should the nurse’s initial action be?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct initial action for a client with anxiety disorder experiencing increased anxiety prior to vaginal delivery is to encourage the client to express her feelings and provide emotional support. Emotional support is crucial in reducing anxiety during childbirth. Initiating breathing techniques or administering medications should come after emotional support has been provided. Increasing sedative doses may not address the underlying emotional needs of the client and can have potential risks.

3. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the correct laboratory value to monitor to assess the therapeutic effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting clotting factors, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring PT helps ensure that the medication is working effectively to prevent clot formation without causing excessive bleeding. Platelet count (Choice A) is not specific to warfarin therapy and assesses the number of platelets in the blood. White blood cell count (Choice C) and hemoglobin level (Choice D) are not directly related to monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin.

5. Which meal option should the nurse recommend for a client with renal disease who is following a low-protein diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pasta with marinara sauce. Clients with renal disease following a low-protein diet should opt for lower-protein options. Pasta with marinara sauce is a suitable choice as it is lower in protein compared to grilled chicken, tofu, or salmon. Grilled chicken, tofu, and salmon are higher in protein content and are not ideal for individuals following a low-protein diet for renal disease as they may strain the kidneys.

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