Nursing Elites

1. After a spider bite on the lower extremity, a client is admitted to treat an infection that is spreading up the leg. Which admission assessment findings should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin
• B. Core body temperature of 100.5°F
• C. All of the above
• D. Elevated white blood cell count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: All of the above findings should be reported to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and treatment. Swollen lymph nodes in the groin indicate regional lymphatic involvement, a core body temperature of 100.5°F suggests a mild fever response, and an elevated white blood cell count indicates an ongoing infection process. These findings collectively point towards the spread of infection and require immediate attention to prevent further complications.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. A respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute
• B. Use of accessory muscles for breathing
• C. Barrel chest appearance
• D. A pulse oximetry reading of 88%

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A pulse oximetry reading of 88% indicates hypoxemia, which requires immediate intervention to improve oxygenation. Hypoxemia can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. While a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute and the use of accessory muscles for breathing are concerning in COPD, they do not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Similarly, a barrel chest appearance is a common finding in COPD and does not require urgent intervention compared to the critical need to address hypoxemia.

3. The nurse is providing care for a client with advanced liver disease who is experiencing ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement to help manage the client's fluid volume?

• A. Increase the client's sodium intake
• B. Encourage the client to drink more fluids
• C. Place the client in a supine position
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a diuretic as prescribed is the most appropriate intervention to manage fluid volume in a client with ascites due to advanced liver disease. Diuretics help reduce fluid accumulation in the body, including the abdominal cavity where ascites occurs. Increasing sodium intake would worsen fluid retention, and encouraging more fluid intake can exacerbate ascites. Placing the client in a supine position does not directly address the fluid volume issue associated with ascites.

4. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Rebound abdominal tenderness.
• B. Diminished bilateral breath sounds.
• C. Rib pain with deep inspiration.
• D. Nausea with projectile vomiting.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

5. A postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus is showing signs of hyperglycemia. What should the nurse assess first?

• A. Assess for signs of infection.
• B. Monitor the client’s fluid intake and output.
• C. Check the client’s capillary blood glucose level.
• D. Assess the client’s serum potassium level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client’s capillary blood glucose level first. In a postoperative client with a history of diabetes mellitus showing signs of hyperglycemia, assessing blood glucose levels is crucial to confirm hyperglycemia and initiate appropriate interventions. While signs of infection are important to assess due to the client's postoperative status and diabetic history, checking the blood glucose level takes precedence to address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Monitoring fluid intake and output is essential but not the priority in this scenario. Assessing the client’s serum potassium level is important for overall assessment but not the initial step when hyperglycemia is suspected.

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