Nursing Elites

1. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?

• A. Fortified milk and cereals
• B. Citrus fruits and juices
• C. Green leafy vegetables
• D. Red meats and eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

2. A client reports for a scheduled electroencephalogram (EEG). Which statement by the client indicates a need for additional preparation for the test?

• A. I didn’t shampoo my hair.
• B. I ate breakfast this morning.
• C. I didn’t take my anticonvulsant today.
• D. It was hard not to drink coffee this morning, but I knew that I couldn’t, so I didn’t.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. For an EEG, it is essential that the client's hair is clean, without any products like hairspray or gel, to ensure good electrode contact with the scalp. Choice B is not a concern as having breakfast is allowed before the test. Choice C, not taking an anticonvulsant, might be required for certain types of EEGs to capture accurate brain activity. Choice D, not drinking coffee, is not a specific requirement for an EEG preparation.

3. A nurse cares for a client with diabetes mellitus who is prescribed metformin (Glucophage) and is scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Contact the provider and recommend discontinuing the metformin.
• B. Keep the client NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the examination.
• C. Check the client’s capillary artery blood glucose and administer prescribed insulin.
• D. Administer intravenous fluids to dilute and increase the excretion of dye.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metformin can cause lactic acidosis and renal impairment as the result of an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established. The client’s health care provider needs to provide alternative therapy for the client until the metformin can be resumed. Keeping the client NPO, checking the client’s blood glucose, and administering intravenous fluids should be part of the client’s plan of care, but are not the priority, as the examination should not occur while the client is still taking metformin.

4. A patient has begun taking spironolactone (Aldactone) in addition to a thiazide diuretic. With the addition of the spironolactone, the nurse will counsel this patient to

• A. not take a potassium supplement daily.
• B. recognize that abdominal cramping is a common side effect.
• C. report decreased urine output to the provider.
• D. take these medications in the morning.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When combining a potassium-sparing diuretic like spironolactone with a thiazide diuretic, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia, especially in patients with poor renal function. Therefore, the patient should be educated to report any decrease in urine output, which could indicate a potential issue with kidney function. Choice A is incorrect because taking additional potassium supplements can further increase the risk of hyperkalemia. Choice B is incorrect as abdominal cramping is not a common side effect of spironolactone. Choice D is incorrect because the timing of medication administration is not directly related to the addition of spironolactone and thiazide diuretic; there is no specific recommendation to take these medications only at bedtime.

5. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

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