Nursing Elites

1. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?

• A. Fortified milk and cereals
• B. Citrus fruits and juices
• C. Green leafy vegetables
• D. Red meats and eggs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.

2. A patient’s serum osmolality is 305 mOsm/kg. Which term describes this patient’s body fluid osmolality?

• A. Iso-osmolar
• B. Hypo-osmolar
• C. Hyperosmolar
• D. Isotonic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct term to describe a patient with a serum osmolality of 305 mOsm/kg is 'hyperosmolar.' Normal osmolality ranges from 280 to 300 mOsm/kg. A patient with an osmolality above this range is considered hyperosmolar. Choice A ('Iso-osmolar') implies an equal osmolality, which is not the case in this scenario. Choice B ('Hypo-osmolar') suggests a lower osmolality, which is incorrect based on the provided serum osmolality value. Choice D ('Isotonic') refers to a solution having the same osmolality as another solution, not describing the specific scenario of this patient being above the normal range.

3. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

4. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?

• A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
• B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
• C. Checking the patient's pain level.
• D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

5. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Administering IV fluids
• C. Administering antipyretics
• D. Monitoring blood cultures

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.

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