a 58 year old client who has been post menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition whi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

2. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, which actions should a nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the nurse should ensure that the client is kept NPO for 4 to 6 hours to prevent aspiration during the procedure. Obtaining coagulation study results is crucial to assess the risk of bleeding during and after the biopsy. Strict bedrest in a supine position is not necessary before the procedure. It is important to note that blood pressure medications should be carefully managed, but it is not a pre-procedure action. Keeping the client on bedrest or assessing for blood in the urine are interventions that are more relevant post-procedure to monitor for complications.

3. A nurse teaches a client who is recovering from a nephrectomy secondary to kidney trauma. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with one kidney need to avoid contact sports because the kidneys are easily injured. The client will not be required to restrict salt and fluids, end up on dialysis, or have new hypertension because of the nephrectomy.

4. After teaching a client with nephrotic syndrome and a normal glomerular filtration rate, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In nephrotic syndrome, there is significant renal loss of protein leading to hypoalbuminemia and edema formation. If glomerular filtration is normal or near normal, increased protein loss should be matched by an increased intake of protein. Therefore, the correct statement indicating a correct understanding of the nutritional therapy for this condition is increasing protein intake. Decreasing fat, decreasing carbohydrates, or increasing vitamin C intake is not necessary for addressing the underlying issues associated with nephrotic syndrome.

5. What is the primary nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is administering bronchodilators. During an acute asthma attack, the primary goal is to relieve airway constriction and bronchospasm to improve breathing. Bronchodilators, such as short-acting beta-agonists, are the cornerstone of treatment as they help dilate the airways quickly. Administering antibiotics (choice B) is not indicated unless there is an underlying bacterial infection. Administering IV fluids (choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the primary intervention for an acute asthma attack. Administering corticosteroids (choice D) is often used as an adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation, but it is not the primary intervention during the acute phase of an asthma attack.

Similar Questions

When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?
A client is experiencing diarrhea. For which acid-base disorder should the nurse assess the client?
A client with a history of type 1 diabetes Mellitus (DM) and asthma is readmitted to the unit for the third time in two months with a current fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 325mg/dl (18mmol/L SI). The client describes to the nurse not understanding why the blood glucose level continues to be out of control. Which interventions should the nurse implement?
The client with peripheral artery disease has been prescribed clopidogrel (Plavix). The nurse understands that more teaching is necessary when the client states which of the following?
Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

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