HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
2. The client with chronic renal failure who is on a low-sodium diet should avoid which of the following foods?
- A. Fresh fruits.
- B. Canned soups.
- C. Lean meats.
- D. Whole grain bread.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Canned soups are high in sodium, which can lead to fluid retention and hypertension in clients with chronic renal failure who are on a low-sodium diet. Fresh fruits, lean meats, and whole grain bread are generally lower in sodium and can be included in a low-sodium diet. Lean meats provide essential protein, fresh fruits offer vitamins and minerals, and whole grain bread provides fiber, making them suitable choices for individuals with chronic renal failure.
3. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:
- A. Decreased blood flow.
- B. Increased blood flow.
- C. Slow blood flow.
- D. Thrombus formation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.
4. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for
- A. hyperkalemia.
- B. hypermagnesemia.
- C. hypocalcemia.
- D. hypoglycemia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.
5. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
- B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
- C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
- D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.
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