HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?
- A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
- B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
- C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
- D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.
2. A young male client is admitted to rehabilitation following a right above-knee amputation (AKA) and reports aching in his right foot. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Encourage discussion about feelings of limb loss.
- B. Administer a prescription for gabapentin.
- C. Teach the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage.
- D. Offer assistance to move to a quiet room to relax.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescription for gabapentin. Gabapentin is used to treat phantom limb pain, which is common after amputations. Encouraging discussion about feelings of limb loss (choice A) is important for emotional support but does not address the physical pain. Teaching the client how to wrap the stump with an elastic bandage (choice C) is not indicated for aching in the 'right foot' as described. Offering assistance to move to a quiet room to relax (choice D) may provide comfort but does not address the underlying issue of phantom limb pain.
3. A client reports gastrointestinal upset after taking oral tetracycline. Which snack should the nurse recommend?
- A. Yogurt with fruit
- B. Toast with jelly
- C. Crackers with peanut butter
- D. Oatmeal with raisins
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Toast with jelly. Tetracycline can cause gastrointestinal upset when taken with dairy products. Yogurt with fruit (Choice A) contains dairy, which can worsen the gastrointestinal upset. Crackers with peanut butter (Choice C) and oatmeal with raisins (Choice D) are also not the best choices as they may not be gentle enough on the stomach. Toast with jelly is a simple snack that does not contain dairy and is less likely to exacerbate the gastrointestinal upset.
4. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Muscle weakness
- C. Peaked T waves on the ECG
- D. Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Peaked T waves on the ECG. In hyperkalemia, elevated potassium levels can affect the heart's electrical activity, leading to changes on the ECG such as peaked T waves. This finding is concerning as it can progress to serious cardiac arrhythmias, including ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation. Bradycardia (choice A) and decreased deep tendon reflexes (choice D) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. While muscle weakness (choice B) can occur in hyperkalemia due to its effect on neuromuscular function, the most concerning assessment finding indicating the need for immediate intervention in this scenario is peaked T waves on the ECG.
5. While assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion, which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Temperature of 100.4°F (38°C).
- B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg.
- C. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- D. Complaints of feeling cold.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A heart rate of 90 beats per minute requires immediate intervention when assessing a client receiving a blood transfusion. This finding can indicate a potential transfusion reaction, such as a hemolytic reaction or fluid overload, which requires prompt evaluation and management to prevent serious complications. While a temperature of 100.4°F (38°C) may indicate a mild fever, it is not typically an immediate concern during a blood transfusion. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is within the normal range and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Complaints of feeling cold can be addressed but do not indicate an urgent need for intervention compared to the critical nature of a potential transfusion reaction indicated by an elevated heart rate.