a 58 year old client who has been post menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition whi
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

2. A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the choices are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with a sudden and strong urge to void, often accompanied by a large amount of urine released during each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is distended, leading to a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence, not mentioned in the options, is the leakage of urine due to factors unrelated to a lower urinary tract disorder. Reflex incontinence, also not mentioned, is a condition resulting from abnormal detrusor contractions.

3. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is prescribed for a hospitalized client scheduled for a colonoscopy. The client begins to experience diarrhea after drinking the solution. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action by the nurse in this situation is to document the diarrhea in the medical record. Polyethylene glycol–electrolyte solution (GoLYTELY) is a bowel evacuant used to cleanse the bowel before a colonoscopy. It is expected to cause mild diarrhea, which is a normal response to the medication. The diarrhea helps clear the bowel in preparation for the procedure. Calling the physician is not necessary unless there are complications. Administering a cleansing enema or giving intravenous replacement fluids in large amounts are not appropriate actions as they are not indicated for managing the expected diarrhea caused by GoLYTELY.

4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The statement indicates a misunderstanding because medication for CAD should be taken as prescribed, not only when chest pain occurs.

5. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.

Similar Questions

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The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?
A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?
After a client with peripheral vascular disease undergoes a right femoral-popliteal bypass graft, their blood pressure drops from 124/80 to 94/62. What should the nurse assess first?
Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?

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