Nursing Elites

1. A 58-year-old client who has been post-menopausal for five years is concerned about the risk for osteoporosis because her mother has the condition. Which information should the nurse offer?

• A. Osteoporosis is a progressive genetic disease with no effective treatment.
• B. Calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and exercise.
• C. Estrogen replacement therapy should be started to prevent the progression of osteoporosis.
• D. Low-dose corticosteroid treatment effectively halts the course of osteoporosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Post-menopausal females are at risk for osteoporosis due to the cessation of estrogen secretion. While genetics can play a role, osteoporosis is not solely a genetic disease. Increasing calcium intake, along with vitamin D supplementation and weight-bearing exercise, can help prevent further bone loss by slowing down calcium loss from bones. Estrogen replacement therapy is no longer recommended as a first-line treatment for osteoporosis due to associated risks. Corticosteroid treatment is not typically used as a primary treatment for osteoporosis.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who jogs daily is being taught by a nurse about the preferred sites for insulin absorption. What is the most appropriate site for this client?

• A. Arms
• B. Legs
• C. Abdomen
• D. Iliac crest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The abdomen is the most appropriate site for insulin absorption in a client who jogs. When a client is involved in physical activity like jogging, the abdomen is preferred as it provides more consistent absorption compared to the arms or legs, which can have altered absorption rates due to increased blood flow during exercise. The iliac crest is not a common site for insulin injections and may not provide optimal absorption rates compared to the abdomen.

3. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, which actions should a nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours.
• B. Obtain coagulation study results.
• C. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the nurse should ensure that the client is kept NPO for 4 to 6 hours to prevent aspiration during the procedure. Obtaining coagulation study results is crucial to assess the risk of bleeding during and after the biopsy. Strict bedrest in a supine position is not necessary before the procedure. It is important to note that blood pressure medications should be carefully managed, but it is not a pre-procedure action. Keeping the client on bedrest or assessing for blood in the urine are interventions that are more relevant post-procedure to monitor for complications.

4. A client with diabetes begins to cry and says, 'I just cannot stand the thought of having to give myself a shot every day.' Which of the following would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. If you do not give yourself your insulin shots, you will die.
• B. We can teach your daughter to give the shots so you will not have to do it.
• C. I can arrange to have a home care nurse give you the shots every day.
• D. What is it about giving yourself the insulin shots that bothers you?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct response is option D because it is an open-ended question that allows the client to express their feelings and concerns. This approach facilitates a therapeutic communication process by encouraging the client to verbalize their thoughts, emotions, and fears related to giving themselves insulin shots. Option A is incorrect as it uses a fear-inducing statement that may not be helpful in addressing the client's emotional needs. Option B assumes involvement of a family member without exploring the client's feelings further. Option C offers a solution without addressing the client's underlying concerns and emotions, potentially overlooking essential aspects of client-centered care.

5. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

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