a nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence for which client should the nurse plan a habit training program
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.

2. The healthcare provider prescribes diagnostic tests for a client with pneumonia identified on a chest X-ray. Which diagnostic test should the nurse review for implementation to guide the most therapeutic treatment of pneumonia?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sputum culture and sensitivity is the most appropriate diagnostic test for pneumonia as it helps in identifying the causative organism, which is crucial for guiding the selection of the most effective antibiotic therapy. Blood cultures (choice B) are more useful in identifying systemic infections rather than pneumonia specifically. Arterial blood gases (ABG) (choice C) are helpful in assessing oxygenation but do not directly aid in identifying the causative organism. Computerized tomography (CT) of the chest (choice D) is useful for evaluating structural abnormalities in the lungs but is not the initial test of choice for diagnosing pneumonia.

3. The nurse is preparing to give trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient and notes a petechial rash on the patient’s extremities. The nurse will perform which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient on TMP-SMX presents with a petechial rash, it can be indicative of a severe adverse reaction such as thrombocytopenia or a hypersensitivity reaction. The appropriate action for the nurse to take in this situation is to hold the dose of TMP-SMX and notify the healthcare provider immediately. This is crucial to prevent further administration of a medication that may be causing a serious adverse effect. Requesting a blood glucose level (Choice B) is not relevant in this scenario as the patient's presentation is suggestive of a skin-related issue rather than a glucose-related problem. Similarly, requesting a BUN and creatinine level (Choice C) would not address the immediate concern of a petechial rash and its association with TMP-SMX. Requesting an order for diphenhydramine (Choice D) may help manage itching or mild allergic reactions but is not the priority when a petechial rash is observed, as it may indicate a more severe reaction requiring immediate intervention.

4. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.

5. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns involving over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago has several open wounds and develops watery diarrhea. The client's blood pressure is 82/40 mmHg, and temperature is 96°F (36.6°C). Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is presenting with signs of sepsis, such as hypotension, hypothermia, and a recent history of partial-thickness burns with open wounds. The development of watery diarrhea further raises suspicion for sepsis. With a blood pressure of 82/40 mmHg and a low temperature of 96°F (36.6°C), the nurse should recognize the potential for septic shock. Notifying the rapid response team is crucial in this situation as the client requires immediate intervention and management to prevent deterioration and address the underlying septic process. Increasing the room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as the low body temperature is likely due to systemic vasodilation and not environmental factors. While assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is important, the client's hypotension and hypothermia take precedence. Continuing to monitor vital signs (Choice C) alone is insufficient given the critical condition of the client and the need for prompt action to address the sepsis and potential septic shock.

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