Nursing Elites

1. A nurse cares for adult clients who experience urge incontinence. For which client should the nurse plan a habit training program?

• A. A 78-year-old female who is confused
• B. A 65-year-old male with diabetes mellitus
• C. A 52-year-old female with kidney failure
• D. A 47-year-old male with arthritis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a bladder training program to succeed in a client with urge incontinence, the client must be alert, aware, and able to resist the urge to urinate. Habit training will work best for a confused client. This includes going to the bathroom (or being assisted to the bathroom) at set times. The other clients may benefit from other types of bladder training. A confused client may need structured assistance to establish a regular bathroom routine, which can help manage urge incontinence effectively. Clients with diabetes mellitus, kidney failure, or arthritis may require different strategies tailored to their specific conditions.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

• A. Potassium 6.0 mEq/L.
• B. Daily urine output of 400 ml.
• C. Peripheral neuropathy.
• D. Uremic fetor.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

3. After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?

• A. Irregular pulse rhythm
• B. Bile-colored emesis
• C. ST elevation in three leads
• D. Complaint of radiating jaw pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.

4. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?

• A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
• B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
• C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
• D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.

5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with left-sided heart failure?

• A. Administering IV fluids.
• B. Administering oxygen.
• C. Administering diuretics.
• D. Administering antihypertensives.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with left-sided heart failure because it helps improve oxygenation. In left-sided heart failure, the heart struggles to pump oxygen-rich blood to the body, leading to inadequate oxygen supply to tissues. Administering oxygen can help alleviate symptoms of hypoxia and reduce the workload on the heart. IV fluids (Choice A) may exacerbate heart failure by increasing fluid volume, diuretics (Choice C) are used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure, and antihypertensives (Choice D) are more suitable for managing hypertension, which may be a comorbidity in heart failure but are not the primary intervention for left-sided heart failure.

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