Nursing Elites

1. The patient will take a high dose of azithromycin after discharge from the hospital. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I may take antacids 2 hours before taking this drug.
• B. I should take acetaminophen for fever or mild pain.
• C. I should expect diarrhea to be a common, mild side effect.
• D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this drug.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Azithromycin peak levels may be reduced by antacids when taken at the same time, so patients should be cautioned to take antacids 2 hours before or 2 hours after taking the drug. Choice B is incorrect because high-dose azithromycin carries a risk for hepatotoxicity when taken with other potentially hepatotoxic drugs such as acetaminophen. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea may indicate pseudomembranous colitis and should be reported, not expected as a common mild side effect. Choice D is incorrect; there is no restriction for dairy products while taking azithromycin.

2. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
• B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
• C. Assess the client's core temperature.
• D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.

3. The healthcare provider caring for a patient who will receive penicillin to treat an infection asks the patient about previous drug reactions. The patient reports having had a rash when taking amoxicillin (Amoxil). The healthcare provider will contact the provider to

• A. discuss giving a smaller dose of penicillin.
• B. discuss using erythromycin (E-mycin) instead of penicillin.
• C. request an order for diphenhydramine (Benadryl).
• D. suggest that the patient receive cefuroxime (Ceftin).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient reports a previous rash with amoxicillin, which is a type of penicillin, there is a concern for a penicillin allergy. In such cases, using an alternative antibiotic like erythromycin, which is not a penicillin, is the appropriate approach to avoid potential cross-reactivity and allergic reactions. Giving smaller doses of penicillin does not address the underlying allergy issue and can still lead to severe hypersensitivity reactions. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to manage allergic reactions but should not be the first choice in changing the antibiotic. While some patients allergic to penicillins may also be allergic to cephalosporins like cefuroxime, it is not the best immediate alternative in this scenario.

4. A client in the intensive care unit is started on continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH). Which finding should prompt immediate action by the nurse?

• A. Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg
• B. Sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L
• D. Pulse rate of 90 beats/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood pressure of 76/58 mm Hg. In a client undergoing continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH), hypotension can be a significant concern if replacement fluid does not adequately maintain blood pressure. The nurse should take immediate action to address hypotension to prevent further complications. The sodium level of 138 mEq/L is within normal range, and a potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L, while slightly elevated, may be expected in a patient with acute kidney injury. A pulse rate of 90 beats/min falls within the normal range and does not typically require immediate intervention in this context.

5. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL. After the nurse calls the physician to report the finding and monitors the client closely for:

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, a client with a blood glucose level of 620 mg/dL and type 1 diabetes mellitus is at risk of developing metabolic acidosis. In type 1 diabetes, the lack of sufficient circulating insulin leads to an increase in blood glucose levels. As the body cells utilize all available glucose, the breakdown of fats for energy results in the production of ketones, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis are not typically associated with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes. Metabolic alkalosis is more commonly linked to conditions such as vomiting or excessive diuretic use, while respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis are related to respiratory system imbalances in carbon dioxide levels.

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