Nursing Elites

1. A client who underwent lobectomy 24 hours ago has not had any chest tube drainage for the past hour. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Contacts the physician
• B. Checks for kinks in the drainage system
• C. Checks the client’s blood pressure and heart rate
• D. Connects a new drainage system to the client’s chest tube

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a chest tube is not draining, the nurse's initial action should be to check for kinks or clots in the chest drainage system. This step helps to ensure the patency of the system and allows for proper drainage. Checking the client's blood pressure and heart rate is important but not the priority when addressing a lack of chest tube drainage. Contacting the physician is warranted if signs of respiratory distress or mediastinal shift are observed after ruling out kinks or clots. Connecting a new drainage system is done when the fluid chamber is full, following a specific procedure to maintain a closed system and prevent complications.

2. A nurse has a prescription to discontinue a client’s nasogastric tube. The nurse auscultates the client’s bowel sounds, positions the client properly, and flushes the tube with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. The nurse then instructs the client to take a deep breath and:

• A. Exhale during tube removal
• B. Bear down during tube removal
• C. Hold the breath during tube removal
• D. Breathe normally during tube removal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to hold their breath during tube removal. This is because the airway may be temporarily obstructed during the removal process. By holding their breath, the client can help prevent aspiration or discomfort during the removal of the nasogastric tube. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because exhaling, bearing down, or breathing normally during tube removal may not provide the necessary protection against aspiration or discomfort that holding the breath does.

3. Which of the following is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a patient with diabetes?

• A. Fasting blood glucose levels.
• B. Postprandial blood glucose levels.
• C. Hemoglobin A1c.
• D. Random blood glucose levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hemoglobin A1c. Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, providing a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control. Fasting blood glucose levels (choice A) only offer a snapshot of the current glucose level and can fluctuate throughout the day. Postprandial blood glucose levels (choice B) reflect glucose levels after meals but do not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Random blood glucose levels (choice D) are taken at any time and lack the consistency needed to assess long-term glycemic control effectively. Therefore, Hemoglobin A1c is the superior choice for monitoring and managing diabetes over an extended period.

4. After teaching a client with bacterial cystitis who is prescribed phenazopyridine (Pyridium), the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will not take this drug with food or milk.
• B. If I suspect pregnancy, I will discontinue the drug.
• C. An orange color in my urine should not alarm me.
• D. I will consume two glasses of cranberry juice daily.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Phenazopyridine commonly discolors urine to a deep reddish orange, which can be mistaken for blood. It is important for the client to understand that this color change is an expected side effect and should not be a cause for alarm. Additionally, the urine can stain clothing. There are no dietary restrictions or precautions related to food or milk intake while taking phenazopyridine. Stopping the medication if suspecting pregnancy is not necessary as phenazopyridine is safe to use during pregnancy. Drinking cranberry juice is not directly related to the use of phenazopyridine and is not a specific instruction given for managing bacterial cystitis.

5. The client has had a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery 6 hours ago. Which assessment provides the most accurate information about the client's postoperative status?

• A. Radial pulse.
• B. Femoral pulse.
• C. Apical pulse.
• D. Dorsalis pedis pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the dorsalis pedis pulse is crucial after a femoral-popliteal bypass surgery to determine adequate circulation distal to the surgical site. A strong dorsalis pedis pulse indicates sufficient blood flow to the foot, which is essential for monitoring postoperative status. The radial pulse (A) is not the most relevant assessment as it does not provide direct information on circulation in the lower extremities. The femoral pulse (B) may not accurately reflect circulation distal to the surgical site. The apical pulse (C) is used primarily to assess the heartbeat and cardiac function, not circulation in the lower extremities.

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