HESI RN
HESI RN Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. When working with a large population of African-American clients at a community health center, which priority assessment should a nurse include?
- A. Measure height and weight.
- B. Assess blood pressure.
- C. Observe for any signs of abuse.
- D. Ask about medications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing blood pressure is the priority assessment when working with a population of African-American clients due to the high prevalence of hypertension in this group. African Americans have a higher risk of hypertension, which can lead to complications like end-stage renal disease. Monitoring blood pressure allows for the early detection and management of hypertension. While measuring height and weight, observing for signs of abuse, and asking about medications are important assessments, assessing blood pressure is crucial in this context to address the specific health needs of African-American clients.
2. An adult female client has undergone a routine health screening in the clinic. Which of the following values indicates to the nurse who receives the report of the client’s laboratory work that the client’s hematocrit is normal?
- A. 10%
- B. 22%
- C. 30%
- D. 43%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The normal hematocrit for an adult female client ranges from 35% to 47%. A hematocrit value of 43% falls within this normal range, indicating normal levels of red blood cells. Choices A, B, and C are low hematocrit values and are considered below the normal range for adult females, signifying potential anemia or other health issues.
3. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
- B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
- C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
- D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.
4. To reduce the risk of pulmonary complications for a client with ALS, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy
- B. Teach the client breathing exercises
- C. Initiate passive range of motion exercises
- D. Establish a regular bladder routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing chest physiotherapy is the most appropriate intervention to reduce the risk of pulmonary complications in clients with ALS. Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize and clear respiratory secretions, improving lung function and reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Teaching breathing exercises (Choice B) may be beneficial for some clients, but chest physiotherapy is more specifically targeted at managing pulmonary issues in ALS. Initiating passive range of motion exercises (Choice C) and establishing a regular bladder routine (Choice D) are important interventions in ALS care but are not directly related to reducing the risk of pulmonary complications.
5. A patient has a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L. The patient’s provider has determined that the patient will need 200 mEq of potassium to replace serum losses. How will the nurse caring for this patient expect to administer the potassium?
- A. As a single-dose 200 mEq oral tablet
- B. As an intravenous bolus over 15 to 20 minutes
- C. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour
- D. In an intravenous solution at a rate of 45 mEq/hour
Correct answer: C
Rationale: For a patient with severe hypokalemia with a serum potassium level of 2.7 mEq/L requiring 200 mEq of potassium replacement, the appropriate route of administration would be intravenous. Potassium chloride should be administered slowly to prevent adverse effects; therefore, the correct option is to administer the potassium in an intravenous solution at a rate of 10 mEq/hour. Choices A and B are incorrect because potassium should not be given as a single-dose oral tablet or as an intravenous bolus over a short period of time due to the risk of adverse effects. Choice D is also incorrect as the rate of 45 mEq/hour exceeds the recommended maximum infusion rate for adults with a serum potassium level greater than 2.5 mEq/L, which is 10 mEq/hour.
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