which of the following is the most common cause of peptic ulcers
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

2. A client is recovering from a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy and reports increased pain from 3 to 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: An abrupt increase in pain following a percutaneous kidney biopsy may indicate internal hemorrhage. Assessing the client's pulse rate and blood pressure is crucial as changes in vital signs can be indicative of hemorrhage. This assessment is essential in determining the client's hemodynamic status and the need for immediate intervention. Repositioning the client, administering pain medication, or checking urine color are not the priority actions in this situation and may delay necessary interventions for potential hemorrhage.

3. A client who has just undergone bronchoscopy was returned to the nursing unit 1 hour ago. With which assessment finding is the nurse most concerned?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The absence of cough and gag reflexes is the most concerning finding for the nurse because it indicates a lack of protective airway reflexes, putting the client at risk of aspiration. Oxygen saturation of 97% is within the normal range and indicates adequate oxygenation. Equal breath sounds in both lungs are a positive finding, indicating no significant abnormalities. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is also within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Therefore, the absence of cough and gag reflexes poses the highest risk to the client's airway safety.

4. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

5. A healthcare professional reviews the allergy list of a client scheduled for an intravenous urography. Which client allergy should prompt urgent contact with the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with seafood allergies should alert healthcare professionals to urgently contact the healthcare provider before an intravenous urography. The standard dyes used in this procedure can trigger severe allergic reactions in individuals with seafood allergies. Penicillin, bee stings, and red food dye allergies do not pose a direct threat during intravenous urography, making them less critical for immediate intervention.

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