Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?

• A. Losing weight.
• B. Decreasing caffeine intake.
• C. Avoiding large meals.
• D. Raising the head of the bed on blocks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.

2. A nurse contacts the healthcare provider after reviewing a client’s laboratory results and noting a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 35 mg/dL and a creatinine of 1.0 mg/dL. For which action should the nurse recommend a prescription?

• A. Intravenous fluids
• B. Hemodialysis
• C. Fluid restriction
• D. Urine culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal range for BUN is 10 to 20 mg/dL, and for creatinine, it is 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL in males and 0.5 to 1.1 mg/dL in females. Creatinine is a more specific marker for kidney function compared to BUN. In this case, the client's creatinine level is within the normal range, indicating a non-renal cause for the elevated BUN. Dehydration is a common cause of increased BUN, so the appropriate action would be to recommend intravenous fluids to address the dehydration. Fluid restriction is not indicated as the client needs hydration. Hemodialysis is not appropriate for dehydration and is typically reserved for renal failure. The laboratory results do not suggest an infection, making a urine culture and sensitivity unnecessary in this scenario.

3. After checking the urinary drainage system for kinks in the tubing, the nurse determines that a client who has returned from the post-anesthesia care has a dark, concentrated urinary output of 54 ml for the last 2 hours. What priority nursing action should be implemented?

• A. Report the findings to the surgeon.
• B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter.
• C. Apply manual pressure to the bladder.
• D. Increase the IV flow rate for 15 minutes.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the nurse's priority action should be to report the findings to the surgeon. An adult should typically produce about 60 ml of urine per hour, so a dark, concentrated, and low urine output of 54 ml over 2 hours raises concerns. This change in urine output may indicate issues such as dehydration, renal problems, or inadequate fluid intake. Reporting this finding to the surgeon is crucial to ensure appropriate evaluation and intervention. Irrigating the catheter, applying manual pressure to the bladder, or increasing the IV flow rate are not appropriate actions based on the information provided and could potentially worsen the situation.

4. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who is receiving an intravenous antibiotic. The patient has a serum drug trough of 1.5 mcg/mL. The normal trough for this drug is 1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL. What will the healthcare provider expect the patient to experience?

• A. Inadequate drug effects
• B. Increased risk of superinfection
• C. Minimal adverse effects
• D. Slowed onset of action

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum drug trough level below the normal range (1.7 mcg/mL to 2.2 mcg/mL) indicates that the medication concentration is insufficient to provide therapeutic effects, leading to inadequate drug effects. A low trough level does not directly correlate with an increased risk of superinfection, minimal adverse effects, or a slowed onset of action, as these are more related to the drug's concentration within the therapeutic range.

5. A healthcare professional is reading the chest x-ray report of a client who has just been intubated. The report states that the tip of the endotracheal tube lies 1 cm above the carina. The healthcare professional interprets that the tube is positioned above:

• A. The first tracheal cartilaginous ring
• B. The point where the larynx connects to the trachea
• C. The bifurcation of the right and left main stem bronchi
• D. The area connecting the oropharynx to the laryngopharynx

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The carina is a cartilaginous ridge that separates the openings of the two main stem (right and left) bronchi. If an endotracheal tube is inserted past the carina, the tube will enter the right main stem bronchus due to the natural curvature of the airway. This positioning is dangerous as only the right lung will be ventilated. It can be identified as only the right lung will have breath sounds and rise and fall with ventilation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the specific anatomical landmark mentioned in the scenario.

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