Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) has been experiencing severe reflux during sleep. Which recommendation by the nurse is most effective to assist the client?

• A. Losing weight.
• B. Decreasing caffeine intake.
• C. Avoiding large meals.
• D. Raising the head of the bed on blocks.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to raise the head of the bed on blocks (reverse Trendelenburg position). This elevation helps reduce reflux by using gravity to keep stomach contents from flowing back into the esophagus during sleep. Losing weight (Choice A) could be beneficial in managing GERD, but it may not be as effective for immediate relief during sleep. Decreasing caffeine intake (Choice B) and avoiding large meals (Choice C) are also valuable recommendations to manage GERD; however, they may not specifically address the issue of reflux during sleep as directly and effectively as elevating the head of the bed.

2. After educating a client with a history of renal calculi, the nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement made by the client indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should drink at least 3 liters of fluid every day.
• B. I will eliminate all dairy or sources of calcium from my diet.
• C. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products can lead to stones.
• D. The doctor can give me antibiotics at the first sign of a stone.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent the formation of renal calculi, it is essential to maintain adequate hydration as dehydration can contribute to the precipitation of minerals leading to stone formation. Therefore, the correct statement indicating understanding of the teaching is choice A. Increasing fluid intake helps dilute urine and reduces the risk of stone formation. Eliminating all sources of calcium is not recommended as calcium is essential for various bodily functions and eliminating it can lead to other health issues. Aspirin and aspirin-containing products do not directly cause kidney stones. Antibiotics are not used to prevent or treat renal calculi, as they are not caused by bacterial infections.

3. Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?

• A. Breast self-examinations are not necessary if annual mammograms are obtained.
• B. Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
• C. Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings.
• D. Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important information to provide a post-menopausal female client regarding mammograms is that yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal screenings. It is crucial for post-menopausal women to continue regular mammograms as they are at a higher risk for breast cancer. Option A is incorrect as breast self-examinations are still recommended in addition to mammograms. Option B is not the most important information compared to the importance of regular mammograms. Option D is not the most important advice for all post-menopausal females but specifically for those at high risk, indicating a more targeted approach.

4. A client has had a pulmonary artery catheter inserted. In performing hemodynamic monitoring with the catheter, the nurse will wedge the catheter to gain information about which of the following?

• A. Cardiac output.
• B. Right atrial blood flow.
• C. Left end-diastolic pressure.
• D. Cardiac index.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Left end-diastolic pressure. Wedging the pulmonary artery catheter allows the nurse to obtain the pulmonary artery wedge pressure, which reflects the left end-diastolic pressure. This pressure is essential in assessing left ventricular function and diagnosing conditions like heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because wedging the catheter does not directly provide information about cardiac output, right atrial blood flow, or cardiac index.

5. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?

• A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
• B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
• C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
• D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.

Similar Questions