Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause of the bradycardia?

• A. Propranolol (Inderal).
• B. Captopril (Capoten).
• C. Furosemide (Lasix).
• D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent that acts to decrease heart rate and contractility. Sinus bradycardia is a common side effect of beta blockers due to their negative chronotropic effect on the heart. Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not associated with causing bradycardia. Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that can lead to electrolyte imbalances but not commonly linked to bradycardia. Dobutamine (Dobutrex) is a beta-1 adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility, making it an unlikely cause of bradycardia in this scenario.

2. After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?

• A. Irregular pulse rhythm
• B. Bile-colored emesis
• C. ST elevation in three leads
• D. Complaint of radiating jaw pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.

3. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
• B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
• C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
• D. Tell the client not to travel alone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.

4. A client with early breast cancer receives the results of a breast biopsy and asks the nurse to explain the meaning of staging and the type of receptors found on the cancer cells. Which explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. Lymph node involvement is not significant.
• B. Small tumors are aggressive and indicate poor prognosis.
• C. The tumor's estrogen receptor guides treatment options.
• D. Stage I indicates metastasis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Treatment decisions and prediction of prognosis are related to the tumor's receptor status, such as estrogen and progesterone receptor status which commonly are well-differentiated, have a lower chance of recurrence, and are receptive to hormonal therapy. Tumor staging designates tumor size and spread of breast cancer cells into axillary lymph nodes, which is one of the most important prognostic factors in early-stage breast cancer.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Stop the dialysis treatment
• B. Administer 5% albumin IV
• C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
• D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.

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