Nursing Elites

1. In a 46-year-old female client admitted for acute renal failure secondary to diabetes and hypertension, which test is the best indicator of adequate glomerular filtration?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
• C. Sedimentation rate.
• D. Urine specific gravity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum creatinine. Creatinine is a product of muscle metabolism that is filtered by the glomerulus. Blood levels of creatinine are not affected by dietary or fluid intake, making it a reliable indicator of kidney function. An elevated creatinine level strongly suggests nephron loss, indicating decreased glomerular filtration rate. Choice B, Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN), reflects the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood and can be influenced by factors other than kidney function, such as protein intake and liver health, making it less specific for evaluating glomerular filtration. Choice C, Sedimentation rate, is a measure of how quickly red blood cells settle in a test tube and is not a direct marker of kidney function. Choice D, Urine specific gravity, mainly reflects the kidney's ability to concentrate urine and is not a direct indicator of glomerular filtration rate. Therefore, Serum creatinine is the most appropriate test to assess glomerular filtration in this scenario.

2. A client who has heart failure is admitted with a serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L. Which action is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Administer 20 mEq of potassium chloride.
• B. Initiate continuous cardiac monitoring.
• C. Arrange a consultation with the dietitian.
• D. Educate about the side effects of diuretics.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypokalemia, defined as a serum potassium level below the normal range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L, can lead to changes in myocardial irritability and ECG waveform, potentially causing life-threatening dysrhythmias. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to initiate continuous cardiac monitoring to promptly detect any abnormal heart rhythms or ventricular ectopy. This monitoring is crucial for assessing the impact of potassium replacement therapy on the cardiac rhythm and ensuring the safety of the client. While administering potassium chloride is important for correcting the hypokalemia, it should occur after cardiac monitoring is in place. Consulting with a dietitian and educating about diuretic side effects are relevant aspects of care but are not the immediate priority in this situation where cardiac monitoring takes precedence for timely intervention.

3. When a young client being taught to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms states the intention to use the inhaler but plans to continue smoking cigarettes, what is the best initial action by the nurse?

• A. Inform the healthcare provider of the client's statement.
• B. Explain that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen.
• C. Revise the plan of care based on the client's plans to continue smoking.
• D. Review factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best initial action by the nurse when a client expresses plans to use an inhaler for asthma symptoms but continue smoking cigarettes is to address denial. By explaining that denial of illness can interfere with the treatment regimen, the nurse educates the client about the impact of smoking on asthma treatment. This approach helps the client understand the importance of smoking cessation in managing asthma symptoms. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial action in this scenario. Revising the plan of care (Choice C) should be considered after addressing the client's denial and educating them. Reviewing factors surrounding the client's beliefs about smoking cessation (Choice D) is relevant but not the best initial action when denial is identified.

4. During a paracentesis procedure on a client with abdominal ascites, into which position would the nurse assist the client?

• A. Supine
• B. Upright
• C. Left side-lying
• D. Right side-lying

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a paracentesis procedure for a client with abdominal ascites, the nurse should assist the client into an upright position. Placing the client upright allows the intestines to float posteriorly, reducing the risk of intestinal laceration during catheter insertion. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a supine, left side-lying, or right side-lying position would not provide the same benefit of intestinal mobility and protection during the procedure.

5. After delegating to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) the task of completing a bladder scan examination for a client, the nurse evaluates the UAP’s performance. Which action by the UAP indicates the nurse must provide additional instructions when delegating this task?

• A. Selecting the female icon for all female clients and the male icon for all male clients
• B. Explaining to the client, 'This test measures the amount of urine in your bladder.'
• C. Applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use
• D. Taking at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the UAP should select the female icon for women who have not had a hysterectomy to allow the scanner to subtract the volume of the uterus from readings. If a woman has had a hysterectomy, the UAP should choose the male icon. Choice B is incorrect as it is essential for the UAP to explain the procedure to the client to ensure understanding. Choice C is incorrect because applying ultrasound gel to the scanning head and cleaning it after use are appropriate actions. Choice D is incorrect as it is necessary for the UAP to take at least two readings using the aiming icon to position the scanning head accurately for an effective bladder scan examination.

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