Nursing Elites

1. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

2. An emergency department nurse assesses a client with a history of urinary incontinence who presents with extreme dry mouth, constipation, and an inability to void. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Are you drinking plenty of water?
• B. What medications are you taking?
• C. Have you tried laxatives or enemas?
• D. Has this type of thing ever happened before?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of dry mouth, constipation, and inability to void are indicative of anticholinergic side effects, which can be caused by medications like propantheline (Pro-Banthine) commonly used to treat incontinence. The first question the nurse should ask is about the client's medications to determine if they are taking anticholinergic drugs. This information is crucial as it can help differentiate between a simple side effect or a potential overdose. Asking about water intake (Choice A) may be relevant later but is not the priority in this situation. Questioning about laxatives or enemas (Choice C) and past occurrences (Choice D) are not as pertinent initially as identifying the client's current medication status.

3. The client with diabetes mellitus is being taught how to prevent or delay chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which client statements indicate a lack of understanding of the teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. I can continue to take an aspirin every 4 to 8 hours for my pain.
• B. My weight should be maintained at a body mass index of 30.
• C. Smoking should be stopped as soon as possible.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Both statements A and B indicate a lack of understanding of CKD prevention. Taking aspirin every 4 to 8 hours can lead to kidney damage, and maintaining a body mass index (BMI) of 30 is considered overweight, which can increase the risk of developing CKD. Statement C, on the other hand, correctly addresses smoking cessation, which is crucial in preventing CKD. Therefore, choices A and B are incorrect as they do not align with CKD prevention strategies, making option D the correct choice.

4. A client who had a C-5 spinal cord injury 2 years ago is admitted to the emergency department with the diagnosis of autonomic dysreflexia secondary to a full bladder. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect this client to exhibit?

• A. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath
• B. Hypotension and venous pooling in the extremities
• C. Profuse diaphoresis and severe, pounding headache
• D. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a life-threatening condition commonly seen in clients with spinal cord injuries above the T6 level. It is characterized by a sudden onset of excessively high blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus below the level of injury, often a distended bladder. The exaggerated sympathetic response leads to vasoconstriction, resulting in symptoms such as profuse diaphoresis (sweating) and a severe, pounding headache. These symptoms are the body's attempt to lower blood pressure. Complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath (Choice A) are not typical findings in autonomic dysreflexia. Hypotension and venous pooling (Choice B) are opposite manifestations of autonomic dysreflexia, which is characterized by hypertension. Pain and burning sensation upon urination and hematuria (Choice D) are indicative of a urinary tract infection and not specific to autonomic dysreflexia.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of intravenous ceftriaxone (Rocephin) to a patient. When reviewing the patient’s chart, the nurse notes that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking amoxicillin. What is the nurse’s next action?

• A. Administer the drug and observe closely for hypersensitivity reactions.
• B. Ask the provider whether a cephalosporin from a different generation may be used.
• C. Contact the provider to report drug hypersensitivity.
• D. Notify the provider and suggest an oral cephalosporin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient has a history of a rash with amoxicillin, a beta-lactam antibiotic like ceftriaxone should be administered cautiously due to a possible cross-reactivity. The nurse should still administer the drug but closely monitor the patient for any signs of hypersensitivity reactions. Asking for a different generation of cephalosporin or suggesting an oral form does not address the potential cross-reactivity issue. Contacting the provider to report drug hypersensitivity would delay care when the patient needs immediate treatment.

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