Nursing Elites

1. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

2. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?

• A. Age over 60 years.
• B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
• C. History of heart failure.
• D. Cigarette smoking.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.

3. An elderly client is admitted with a diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. The nurse's assessment of the client will most likely reveal which sign/symptom?

• A. Leukocytosis and febrile.
• B. Polycythemia and crackles.
• C. Pharyngitis and sputum production.
• D. Confusion and tachycardia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The onset of pneumonia in the elderly may be signaled by general deterioration, confusion, increased heart rate or increased respiratory rate due to the decreased oxygen- carbon dioxide exchange at the alveoli, known as the V-Q mismatch.

4. A client is starting urinary bladder training. Which statement should the nurse include in this client’s teaching?

• A. Use the toilet when you first feel the urge, rather than at specific intervals.
• B. Try to consciously hold your urine until the scheduled toileting time.
• C. Initially try to use the toilet at least every half hour for the first 24 hours.
• D. The toileting interval can be increased once you have been continent for a week.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In urinary bladder training, the client should be taught to try to consciously hold their urine until the scheduled toileting time. This helps in training the bladder to hold urine for longer periods. Option A is incorrect because the goal is to consciously hold urine, not void immediately. Option C is incorrect as toileting at least every half hour may not promote bladder training. Option D is incorrect as increasing the toileting interval should be based on the client's comfort and progress, not just after being continent for a week.

5. Which of the following is a key symptom of appendicitis?

• A. Right lower quadrant pain.
• B. Left lower quadrant pain.
• C. Generalized abdominal pain.
• D. Rebound tenderness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Choice A: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic and key symptom of appendicitis. Pain in the right lower quadrant is typically the initial symptom and is a result of inflammation and irritation of the appendix. This pain can start around the umbilicus and then migrate to the right lower quadrant. It is important to note that appendicitis rarely presents with pain in the left lower quadrant or generalized abdominal pain. Rebound tenderness, indicated in Choice D, is a sign of peritoneal irritation and is associated with appendicitis, but it is not as characteristic as the right lower quadrant pain in the initial presentation of appendicitis.

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