HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. Upon arrival of a client transferred to the surgical unit, what should the nurse plan to do first?
- A. Assess the patency of the airway
- B. Check tubes and drains for patency
- C. Check the dressing for bleeding
- D. Assess the vital signs to compare them with preoperative measurements
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The initial action for the nurse upon the arrival of a client to the surgical unit is to assess the patency of the airway. This step takes priority to ensure that the client has a clear airway for adequate breathing. Checking tubes and drains for patency, inspecting the dressing for bleeding, and assessing vital signs to compare with preoperative measurements are important subsequent steps in the assessment process. However, ensuring the airway is patent is the immediate priority to maintain the client's respiratory function and overall well-being.
2. A client with bladder cancer who underwent a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to urgently contact the healthcare provider?
- A. The ileostomy is draining blood-tinged urine.
- B. There is serous sanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- C. The ileostomy stoma appears pale and cyanotic.
- D. Oxygen saturations are 92% on room air.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A pale or cyanotic appearance of the ileostomy stoma indicates compromised circulation, which can lead to necrosis if not promptly addressed. On the other hand, blood-tinged urine and serous sanguineous drainage are common following a complete cystectomy with ileal conduit. These findings do not typically indicate an urgent issue. An oxygen saturation of 92% on room air is slightly below the normal range but does not warrant urgent healthcare provider contact unless accompanied by significant respiratory distress or other concerning symptoms.
3. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:
- A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
- B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
- C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
- D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.
4. For a client with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) of the lower extremities who is trying to manage their condition well, which routine should the nurse evaluate as appropriate?
- A. Resting with the legs elevated above the level of the heart.
- B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day.
- C. Minimizing activity.
- D. Wearing antiembolism stockings at all times when out of bed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Walking slowly but steadily for 30 minutes twice a day is appropriate for clients with PVD as it helps stimulate collateral circulation and improve blood flow. Choice A is incorrect because while elevating the legs can help with symptoms temporarily, it is not as effective as walking for improving circulation. Choice C, minimizing activity, is not recommended as it can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms. Choice D, wearing antiembolism stockings, is not specifically indicated for PVD and may not address the underlying circulation issues.
5. A middle-aged male client with diabetes continues to eat an abundance of foods that are high in sugar and fat. According to the Health Belief Model, which event is most likely to increase the client's willingness to become compliant with the prescribed diet?
- A. He visits his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot.
- B. He is provided with the most current information about the dangers of untreated diabetes.
- C. He comments on the community service announcements about preventing complications associated with diabetes.
- D. His wife expresses a sincere willingness to prepare meals that are within his prescribed diet.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: According to the Health Belief Model, the most effective event to increase compliance with the prescribed diet for a middle-aged male client with diabetes is experiencing a significant consequence related to the disease. In this case, visiting his diabetic brother who just had surgery to amputate an infected foot would serve as a strong 'cue to action,' increasing the client's perceived seriousness of the disease. This event is likely to have a more immediate and impactful effect on the client than other options. Option B provides valuable information but may not have the same personal and emotional impact as witnessing a severe consequence firsthand. Option C involves indirect exposure to prevention messages, which might not be as compelling as a direct experience. Option D, while supportive, does not present a direct consequence of non-compliance like option A does.
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