HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. What is the correct procedure for performing an ophthalmoscopic examination on a client's right retina?
- A. Instruct the client to focus on a distant object behind the examiner and not move their eyes during the exam.
- B. Set the ophthalmoscope on the plus 2 to 3 lens and hold it in front of the examiner's right eye.
- C. From a distance of 12 to 15 inches and slightly to the side, shine the light into the client's pupil.
- D. For optimal visualization, keep the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches from the client's eye.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During an ophthalmoscopic examination, the client should focus on a distant object behind the examiner to dilate the pupil, and the examiner should stand at a distance of 12-15 inches away and slightly to the side. This angle allows for better visualization of the retina. Holding the ophthalmoscope firmly against the examiner's face and shining the light into the client's pupil helps examine the retina effectively. Choice A is incorrect because the client should look at a distant object, not the examiner's nose. Choice B is incorrect as the ophthalmoscope should be directed towards the client's eye, not the examiner's eye. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the ophthalmoscope at least 3 inches away may not provide an optimal view of the retina.
2. A 16-year-old male client who has been treated in the past for a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital. Immediately after admission, he begins to have a grand mal seizure. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Obtain assistance in holding him to prevent injury.
- B. Observe him carefully.
- C. Call a CODE.
- D. Place a padded tongue blade between the teeth.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a grand mal seizure, the priority action for the nurse is to ensure the safety of the client. Observing the client carefully allows the nurse to monitor the seizure activity, the client's breathing, and any signs of distress without interfering with the seizure process. Restraining the client or placing objects in the mouth can lead to injury and should be avoided. Calling a CODE is not appropriate for a seizure as it is a normal response to the client's condition.
3. A healthcare professional prepares to reinforce instructions to a client who is taking allopurinol (Zyloprim). The healthcare professional plans to include which of the following in the instructions?
- A. Instruct the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day.
- B. Instruct the client to take the medication with food.
- C. Inform the client that the effect of the medication will occur immediately.
- D. Instruct the client that, if swelling of the lips occurs, this is a normal expected response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Allopurinol is an antigout medication that works by reducing the production of uric acid in the body. To prevent kidney stones and promote the excretion of uric acid, increased fluid intake is essential. Instructing the client to drink 3000 mL of fluid per day helps to reduce the risk of kidney stones and assists in the elimination of uric acid, thereby enhancing the effectiveness of allopurinol therapy.
4. A mother brings her 8-month-old baby boy to the clinic because he has been vomiting and having diarrhea for the last 3 days. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to make?
- A. Assess the infant's abdomen for tenderness
- B. Determine if the infant has been exposed to a virus
- C. Measure the infant’s pulse
- D. Evaluate the infant’s cry
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial assessment in this scenario is to measure the infant's pulse. Pulse measurement is essential to evaluate the severity of dehydration, which can be a significant concern in a baby experiencing vomiting and diarrhea for several days. Assessing the abdomen for tenderness may provide information on potential causes of symptoms but is not as urgent as monitoring hydration status. Determining exposure to a virus is important for infection control but does not directly address the immediate issue of dehydration. Evaluating the infant's cry, although a form of communication, does not provide critical information regarding the baby's physiological status in this situation.
5. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?
- A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
- B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
- C. Medication management only.
- D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.