Nursing Elites

1. A client recovering from a urologic procedure is being assessed by a nurse. Which assessment finding indicates an obstruction of urine flow?

• A. Severe pain
• B. Overflow incontinence
• C. Hypotension
• D. Blood-tinged urine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Overflow incontinence.' The most common manifestation of urethral stricture after a urologic procedure is obstruction of urine flow. This obstruction can lead to overflow incontinence, which is the involuntary loss of urine when the bladder is distended. Severe pain is not typically associated with an obstruction of urine flow. Hypotension is unrelated to this issue. Blood-tinged urine is not a direct indication of an obstruction of urine flow but may indicate other conditions like trauma or infection.

2. The patient is being educated on taking hydrochlorothiazide. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I may need additional sodium and calcium while taking this medication.
• B. I should consume plenty of fruits and vegetables while taking this drug.
• C. I should be cautious when getting up from a bed or chair while on this medication.
• D. I will take the medication in the morning to reduce certain side effects.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because patients do not require extra sodium or calcium while taking hydrochlorothiazide, a thiazide diuretic. This medication actually promotes the excretion of sodium and water. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements regarding the use of hydrochlorothiazide. Patients are encouraged to have a diet rich in fruits and vegetables, be careful with position changes due to potential orthostatic hypotension, and take the medication in the morning to reduce the need for frequent urination during nighttime.

3. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

4. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of an antibiotic to a patient admitted for a urinary tract infection. Which action is most important prior to administering the antibiotic?

• A. Administering a small test dose to determine if hypersensitivity exists
• B. Having epinephrine available in case of a severe hypersensitivity reaction
• C. Monitoring baseline vital signs, including temperature and blood pressure
• D. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial action before administering an antibiotic for a urinary tract infection is to obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity. This ensures the accurate identification of the causative organism and helps determine the most effective antibiotic therapy. Administering a test dose to detect hypersensitivity is usually reserved for cases with a strong suspicion of allergy to a needed antibiotic. Keeping epinephrine available is important when there is a significant risk of a severe allergic reaction. Monitoring baseline vital signs is essential during antibiotic therapy but is not the top priority before administering the first dose.

5. A nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with a urinary tract infection. The laboratory report notes a “shift to the left” in the client’s white blood cell count. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Request that the laboratory perform a differential analysis on the white blood cells.
• B. Notify the provider and start an intravenous line for parenteral antibiotics.
• C. Collaborate with the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to strain the client’s urine for renal calculi.
• D. Assess the client for a potential allergic reaction and anaphylactic shock.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A “shift to the left” in a white blood cell count indicates an increase in band cells, which is typically associated with urosepsis. In this scenario, the nurse should notify the provider and initiate IV antibiotics as a left shift is often seen in severe infections like urosepsis. Requesting a differential analysis on white blood cells would not be the immediate action needed in response to a left shift. Collaborating to strain urine for renal calculi is unrelated to the situation of a left shift in white blood cells due to urosepsis. Assessing for allergic reactions and anaphylactic shock is not the priority as a left shift is not indicative of an allergic response; it is associated with an increase in band cells, not eosinophils.

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