HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
2. A client with alcohol use disorder is being treated in a rehabilitation facility. Which behavior indicates that the client is making progress in recovery?
- A. Attends all scheduled therapy sessions regularly.
- B. Is participating in group therapy and sharing experiences.
- C. Completes a work-study program.
- D. Has a decreased need for psychiatric medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Participation in group therapy and sharing experiences is a positive sign of progress in recovery for a client with alcohol use disorder. It fosters peer support, allows for personal insight, and encourages social interaction, which are essential aspects of the recovery process. Attending all scheduled therapy sessions regularly (Choice A) is important but may not necessarily indicate the same level of progress as active participation in group therapy. Completing a work-study program (Choice C) is not directly related to the client's recovery from alcohol use disorder. Having a decreased need for psychiatric medication (Choice D) is not necessarily a reliable indicator of progress in recovery from alcohol use disorder, as medication management is a separate aspect of treatment.
3. A client is receiving substitution therapy during withdrawal from benzodiazepines. Which expected outcome statement has the highest priority when planning nursing care?
- A. Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.
- B. Co-dependent behaviors will be decreased.
- C. Client’s level of consciousness will increase.
- D. Client will not demonstrate cross-addiction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Excessive CNS stimulation will be reduced.' During benzodiazepine withdrawal, the priority is to manage symptoms such as CNS hyperactivity, which can include agitation, anxiety, and seizures. Substitution therapy aims to minimize these withdrawal symptoms by providing a safer alternative to the benzodiazepine. Options B, C, and D are not the highest priority during benzodiazepine withdrawal. Decreasing co-dependent behaviors, increasing the client's level of consciousness, and preventing cross-addiction are important aspects of care but are not as critical as managing the potentially severe CNS stimulation.
4. A male client who recently lost a loved one arrives at the mental health center and tells the nurse he is no longer interested in his usual activities and has not slept for several days. Which priority nursing problem should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Risk for suicide
- B. Sleep deprivation
- C. Situational low self-esteem
- D. Social isolation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for suicide. Considering the client's recent loss, lack of interest in activities, and sleep disturbances, the nurse should prioritize assessing and addressing the risk for suicide. This client is displaying warning signs such as loss of interest in usual activities and sleep disturbances, which are commonly associated with suicidal ideation. B: Sleep deprivation is not the priority issue in this scenario, as the client's lack of sleep is likely a symptom of a deeper emotional struggle. C: Situational low self-esteem and D: Social isolation may be concerns for this client but do not take precedence over the immediate risk of suicide, given the presented symptoms.
5. The RN on the evening shift receives a report that a client is scheduled for electroconvulsive treatment (ECT) in the morning. Which intervention should the RN implement the evening before the scheduled ECT?
- A. Hold all bedtime medications.
- B. Keep the client NPO after midnight.
- C. Implement elopement precautions.
- D. Give the client an enema at bedtime.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Keeping the client NPO after midnight is the appropriate intervention before ECT to prevent complications during the procedure. Withholding food and fluids reduces the risk of aspiration and helps ensure the safety of the client. Option A (Hold all bedtime medications) is incorrect because medications may need to be given as prescribed unless specified otherwise by the healthcare provider. Option C (Implement elopement precautions) is unrelated to preparing a client for ECT and focuses on preventing a client from leaving the treatment area. Option D (Give the client an enema at bedtime) is unnecessary and not a standard pre-ECT preparation, making it an incorrect choice.
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