Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the RN finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the RN implement?

• A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (HCP).
• B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
• C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
• D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention in this situation. Excessive thirst is a common side effect of lithium therapy. Sucking on hard candy can help alleviate the symptom without posing any harm. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the symptom of excessive thirst is a known side effect and does not indicate toxicity. No action is needed (Choice C) is incorrect because addressing the client's distress is essential. Telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may cause further distress to the client.

3. A female client with a history of major depressive disorder is experiencing a worsening of symptoms. Which statement by the client indicates a potential risk for suicide?

• A. “I’ve been feeling more tired than usual.”
• B. “I’ve been thinking about how much better everyone would be without me.”
• C. “I’ve been having trouble sleeping lately.”
• D. “I feel like I can’t handle everything.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client’s statement about thinking that everyone would be better off without her indicates suicidal ideation. This statement is a significant warning sign for suicide risk and requires immediate intervention. Choices A, C, and D reflect common symptoms of depression but do not directly indicate suicidal thoughts or intentions. Feeling tired, having trouble sleeping, and feeling overwhelmed are typical symptoms of major depressive disorder but do not necessarily suggest an imminent risk of suicide like the statement in option B does.

4. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

5. A male adolescent was admitted to the unit two days ago for depression. When the mental health nurse tries to interview the client to establish rapport, he becomes very irritated and sarcastic. Which action is best for the nurse to take?

• A. Offer to play a game of cards with the client.
• B. Report the behavior to the next shift.
• C. Document the behavior in the chart.
• D. Plan to talk with the client the next day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to play a game of cards with the adolescent is the best action for the nurse to take in this situation. Engaging in an activity like playing a game can help establish rapport with the adolescent as it provides a more relaxed and non-threatening environment for communication. This approach can help the adolescent feel more comfortable and open up, as adolescents often find it easier to communicate when involved in an activity. Reporting the behavior to the next shift, documenting the behavior, or planning to talk with the client the next day do not directly address the immediate need to establish rapport and improve communication with the adolescent.

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