Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. A male client approaches the nurse with an angry expression on his face and raises his voice, saying, “My roommate is the most selfish, self-centered, angry person I have ever met. If he loses his temper one more time with me, I am going to punch him out!” The nurse recognizes that the client is using which defense mechanism?

• A. Denial
• B. Projection
• C. Rationalization
• D. Splitting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Projection. In this scenario, the client is projecting his own feelings of anger onto his roommate by attributing his anger to the roommate. Projection involves shifting one's feelings, thoughts, or impulses onto another person. Denial (choice A) is the refusal to accept reality, Rationalization (choice C) involves justifying behaviors with logical reasons, and Splitting (choice D) is the inability to integrate positive and negative qualities of oneself or others.

3. Gilbert, age 19, is described by his parents as a 'moody child' with an onset of odd behavior around age 14, which caused him to suffer academically and socially. Gilbert has lost the ability to complete household chores, is reluctant to leave the house, and is obsessed with the locks on the windows and doors. Due to Gilbert's early and slow onset of what is now recognized as schizophrenia, his prognosis is considered:

• A. Favorable with medication
• B. In the relapse stage
• C. Improvable with psychosocial interventions
• D. To have a less positive outcome

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In cases of early and slow onset of schizophrenia, the prognosis is generally less positive. This means that the outlook for individuals like Gilbert, who showed signs of schizophrenia at a young age, is often poorer. Option A is incorrect because while medication can help manage symptoms, the overall prognosis is still less favorable. Option B is incorrect since relapse stage typically refers to a period of worsening symptoms after initial improvement. Option C is incorrect because while psychosocial interventions can be beneficial, the underlying early and slow onset of schizophrenia indicates a less positive outcome.

4. Which actions are likely to help promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression?

• A. Ask the client about his long-term goals.
• B. Discuss the challenges of his medical condition.
• C. Include the client in determining treatment protocol.
• D. Encourage the client to engage in recreational therapy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Including the client in determining the treatment protocol is the most suitable action to promote the self-esteem of a male client with major depression. This approach empowers the client, involves him in decision-making regarding his care, and fosters a sense of control and self-worth. Option A, asking about his long-term goals, may not directly address his immediate self-esteem needs related to his current condition. Option B, discussing the challenges of his medical condition, may inadvertently focus on negative aspects and potentially lower self-esteem. Option D, encouraging engagement in recreational therapy, is beneficial but may not directly address the client's sense of control and self-worth in decision-making related to his treatment.

5. A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is struggling with flashbacks and nightmares. Which therapeutic approach should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Cognitive-behavioral therapy.
• B. Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
• C. Medication management only.
• D. Relaxation training and mindfulness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: A client with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) experiencing flashbacks and nightmares would benefit from cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) in the care plan. CBT is an evidence-based therapeutic approach that focuses on identifying and changing negative thought patterns and behaviors associated with PTSD symptoms. This helps the client learn coping strategies to manage distressing symptoms like flashbacks and nightmares.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is not indicated for PTSD and is typically used for severe depression that has not responded to other treatments. C) Medication management alone may not address the underlying cognitive and behavioral aspects of PTSD. D) Relaxation training and mindfulness can be helpful as adjunctive therapies but may not be as effective as CBT in specifically targeting and modifying PTSD symptoms.

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