a male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit what intervention is best for the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Quizlet HESI Mental Health

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is participating in a cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) program. Which behavior indicates that the therapy is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In treating anorexia nervosa with cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), the primary goals are to normalize eating behaviors and achieve weight restoration. Therefore, adherence to a meal plan and weight gain are crucial indicators of treatment effectiveness. While discussing the impact of the disorder on the family (Choice B) can be beneficial for therapy, it may not directly indicate the effectiveness of CBT in treating anorexia nervosa. Expressing a desire to change behavior (Choice C) is a positive step, but actual behavioral changes such as adhering to a meal plan are more indicative of progress. Reducing the frequency of binge eating (Choice D) is more relevant for other eating disorders like bulimia nervosa, not anorexia nervosa.

3. A client with schizophrenia is exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations. What should be the RN’s initial intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct initial intervention for a client with schizophrenia exhibiting visual and auditory hallucinations is to assess the client’s perception of the hallucinations. This step is crucial as it helps the RN determine the severity of the hallucinations and the best course of action for management and intervention. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice A) may not be effective as the hallucinations may be distressing and overwhelming. Encouraging the client to describe the hallucinations in detail (Choice B) may potentially worsen the symptoms or trigger further distress. Providing reassurance that the hallucinations are not real (Choice D) may not be appropriate as the client may genuinely believe in their reality, and this reassurance may not address the underlying issues causing the hallucinations.

4. A female high school teacher who was a child of alcoholic parents seeks counseling at the community health clinic because of depression over a student who was killed by a drunk driver. After several weeks of counseling, which client behavior is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Becoming the faculty sponsor for Students Against Drunk Driving (SADD) is the best indicator that the client is coping well with anxiety related to the student’s death. This choice demonstrates active involvement in preventing similar tragedies, showing that the client is channeling her emotions into positive action and advocacy. Option A, signing a safety contract, is important for safety but does not directly address coping with the anxiety related to the student's death. Option B, confronting her parents about past hurt, may be beneficial for personal growth but does not directly reflect coping with the current situation. Option D, describing feelings in detail, is a positive step in therapy but does not necessarily indicate coping well with the anxiety related to the student's death.

5. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

Similar Questions

After receiving treatment for anorexia, a student asks the school nurse for permission to work in the school cafeteria as part of the school’s work-study program. What action should the nurse take?
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A client who has agoraphobia (a fear of crowds) is starting desensitization therapy with the therapist, and the nurse is reinforcing the process. Which intervention has the highest priority for this client's plan of care?
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