Nursing Elites

1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

2. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?

• A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
• B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
• C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
• D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.

3. An older male client with schizophrenia is found smearing feces on the bathroom walls of the chronic mental health unit where he resides. What action should the RN implement?

• A. Explain that the feces belong in the toilet.
• B. Show the client how to clean the walls.
• C. Escort the client out of the bathroom.
• D. Assist the client to clean the walls.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Escorting the client out of the bathroom is the most appropriate action to take in this situation. This helps prevent further inappropriate behavior and maintains hygiene, while avoiding reinforcement of the behavior. Option A, explaining that the feces belong in the toilet, may not be effective as the behavior is likely a manifestation of the client's condition rather than a lack of understanding. Option B, showing the client how to clean the walls, may not address the underlying issue and could potentially reinforce the behavior. Option D, assisting the client to clean the walls, may also reinforce the behavior and is not the best approach to managing the situation.

4. James is a 42-year-old patient with schizophrenia. He approaches you as you arrive for day shift and anxiously reports, 'Last night, demons came to my room and tried to rape me.' Which response would be most therapeutic?

• A. There are no such things as demons. What you saw were hallucinations.
• B. It is not possible for anyone to enter your room at night. You are safe here.
• C. You seem very upset. Please tell me more about what you experienced last night.
• D. That must have been very frightening, but we will check on you at night and you will be safe.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the most therapeutic response as it acknowledges the patient's feelings and encourages further exploration of their experience. By expressing empathy and inviting James to share more about what he experienced, it helps build trust and rapport. Choices A and B dismiss the patient's experience and can make them feel invalidated, which is not helpful in establishing a therapeutic relationship. Choice D acknowledges the fear but does not actively engage the patient in discussing their feelings and experiences, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.

5. An elderly client diagnosed with delirium is being treated with antipsychotic medication. Which side effect should the nurse monitor for in this client?

• A. Akathisia
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Orthostatic hypotension
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the nurse should monitor for in an elderly client diagnosed with delirium and treated with antipsychotic medication is orthostatic hypotension. Antipsychotic medications can lead to a drop in blood pressure upon standing, particularly in elderly individuals. Akathisia (choice A) refers to a movement disorder characterized by a feeling of inner restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion, which can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specific to elderly clients with delirium. Hallucinations (choice B) are sensory perceptions that appear real but are created by the mind, and while they can be associated with certain conditions or medications, they are not a common side effect of antipsychotic medications in elderly clients with delirium. Drowsiness (choice D) is a general CNS depressant effect that can occur with antipsychotic medications but is not the specific side effect that the nurse should be monitoring for in this case.

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