HESI RN
Quizlet HESI Mental Health
1. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?
- A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
- B. Administer a PRN sedative.
- C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
- D. Escort the client to his room.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.
2. A female client is brought to the emergency department after police officers found her disoriented, disorganized, and confused. The nurse also determines that the client is homeless and slightly suspicious. This client’s treatment plan should include what priority problem?
- A. Self-care deficit.
- B. Disturbed sensory perception.
- C. Ineffective community coping.
- D. Acute confusion.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Acute confusion.' In the given scenario, the client is disoriented, disorganized, and confused, indicating acute confusion. This is a priority issue to address for immediate safety and appropriate care. Option A, self-care deficit, is not the priority as the client's safety and mental status take precedence over self-care. Option B, disturbed sensory perception, is not applicable as the client's symptoms focus more on cognitive rather than sensory issues. Option C, ineffective community coping, is not the immediate concern as the client's cognitive state needs urgent attention to ensure her safety and well-being.
3. During admission to the psychiatric unit, a female client is extremely anxious and states that she is worried about the sun coming up the next day. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement during the admission process?
- A. Assist the client in developing alternative coping skills.
- B. Remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach.
- C. Ask the client why she is so anxious.
- D. Administer a PRN sedative to help relieve her anxiety.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During admission to a psychiatric unit, it is crucial for the registered nurse to remain calm and use a matter-of-fact approach when addressing a client who is extremely anxious. By staying composed and adopting a matter-of-fact demeanor, the nurse can help establish trust and promote a sense of calm in the client. This approach can also convey a sense of reassurance and stability, which can be beneficial in managing the client's anxiety. Assisting the client in developing alternative coping skills (Choice A) may be important in the long term but is not the most immediate priority during the admission process. Asking the client why she is anxious (Choice C) may not be helpful at this moment as the client may not be able to articulate the specific reasons due to her heightened anxiety. Administering a PRN sedative (Choice D) should not be the initial intervention as it does not address the underlying cause of the anxiety and should be considered only if other non-pharmacological interventions are ineffective.
4. During the admission assessment of an underweight adolescent with depression on a psychiatric unit, the nurse finds a potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl. Which finding requires notification to the healthcare provider?
- A. Potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl.
- B. BP of 110/70 mmHg.
- C. WBC of 10,000 mm³.
- D. Body mass index of 21.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 2.9 mEq/dl is critically low, indicating hypokalemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Prompt notification to the healthcare provider is essential for immediate intervention. Choice B, a blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, is within the normal range. Choice C, a white blood cell count of 10,000 mm³, is also within normal limits and is not a concerning finding in this context. Choice D, a body mass index of 21, may indicate being underweight but is not as urgent as addressing the critically low potassium level.
5. An elderly client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. Which assessment finding is most concerning for the nurse?
- A. Weight loss of 5 pounds in one week.
- B. Lack of interest in previously enjoyed activities.
- C. Disorganized speech and thought processes.
- D. Severe fatigue and low energy levels.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In an elderly client with major depressive disorder, disorganized speech and thought processes are the most concerning assessment findings for the nurse. These symptoms can suggest a more severe condition such as psychosis or cognitive impairment, which require immediate attention and intervention. While weight loss, lack of interest in activities, severe fatigue, and low energy levels are common symptoms of major depressive disorder, they do not pose an immediate risk as disorganized speech and thought processes do. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize addressing the disorganized speech and thought processes to ensure the safety and well-being of the client.
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